A NATURAL LANGUAGE QUESTION ANSWERING SYSTEM AS A PARTICIPANT IN HUMAN Q A PORTALS

Tìm thấy 10,000 tài liệu liên quan tới từ khóa "A NATURAL LANGUAGE QUESTION ANSWERING SYSTEM AS A PARTICIPANT IN HUMAN Q A PORTALS":

THE MICROSOFT 2017 CONVERSATIONAL SPEECH RECOGNITION SYSTEM

THE MICROSOFT 2017 CONVERSATIONAL SPEECH RECOGNITION SYSTEM

ABSTRACT We describe the 2017 version of Microsoft’s conversational speech recognition system, in which we update our 2016 system with recent developments in neuralnetworkbased acoustic and language modeling to further advance the state of the art on the Switchboard speech recognition task. The system adds a CNNBLSTM acoustic model to the set of model architectures we combined previously, and includes characterbased and dialog session aware LSTM language models in rescoring. For system combination we adopt a twostage approach, whereby subsets of acoustic models are first combined at the senoneframe level, followed by a wordlevel voting via confusion networks. We also added a confusion network rescoring step after system combination. The resulting system yields a 5.1% word error rate on the 2000 Switchboard evaluation set. 1. INTRODUCTION We have witnessed steady progress in the improvement of automatic speech recognition (ASR) systems for conversational speech, a genre that was once considered among the hardest in the speech recognition community due to its unconstrained nature and intrinsic variability 1. The combination of deep networks and efficient training methods with older neural modeling concepts 2, 3, 4, 5, 6, 7, 8 have produced steady advances in both acoustic modeling 9, 10, 11, 12, 13, 14, 15 and language modeling 16, 17, 18, 19. These systems typically use deep convolutional neural network (CNN) architectures in acoustic modeling, and multilayered recurrent networks with gated memory (longshortterm memory, LSTM 8) models for both acoustic and language modeling, driving the word error rate on the benchmark Switchboard corpus 20 down from its mid2000s plateau of around 15% to well below 10%. We can attribute this progress to the neural models’ ability to learn regularities over a wide acoustic context in both time and frequency dimensions, and, in the case of language models, to condition on unlimited histories and learn representations of functional word similarity 21, 22. Given these developments, we carried out an experiment last year, to measure the accuracy of a stateoftheart conversational speech recognition system against that of professional transcribers. We were trying to answer the question whether machines had effectively caught up with humans in this, originally very challenging, speech recognition task. To measure human error on this task, we submitted the Switchboard evaluation data to our standard conversational speech transcription vendor pipeline (who was left blind to the experiment), postprocessed the output to remove text normalization discrepancies, and then applied the NIST scoring protocol. The resulting human word error was 5.9%, not statistically different from the 5.8% error rate achieved by our ASR system 23. In a followup study 24, we found that qualitatively, too, the human and machine transcriptions were remarkably similar: the same short function words account for most of the errors, the same speakers tend to be easy or hard to transcribe, and it is difficult for human subjects to tell whether an errorful transcript was produced by a human or ASR. Meanwhile, another research group carried out their own measurement of human transcription error 25, while multiple groups reported further improvements in ASR performance 25, 26. The IBM human transcription study employed a more involved transcription process with more listening passes, a pool of transcribers, and access to the conversational context of each utterance, yielding a human error rate of 5.1%. Together with a prior study by LDC 27, we can conclude that human performance, unsurprisingly, falls within a range depending on the level of effort expended. In this paper we describe a new iteration in the development of our system, pushing well past the 5.9% benchmark we measured previously. The overall gain comes from a combination of smaller improvements in all components of the recognition system. We added an additional acoustic model architecture, a CNNBLSTM, to our system. Language modeling was improved with an additional utterancelevel LSTM based on characters instead of words, as well as a dialog sessionbased LSTM that uses the entire preceding conversation as history. Our system combination approach was refined by combining predictions from multiple acoustic models at both the senoneframe and word levels. Finally, we added an LM rescoring step after confusion network creation, bringing us to an overall error rate of 5.1%, thus surpassing the human accuracy level we had measured previously. The remainder Fig. 1. LACE network architecture of the paper describes each of these enhancements in turn, followed by overall results. 2. ACOUSTIC MODELS 2.1. Convolutional Neural Nets We used two types of CNN model architectures: ResNet and LACE (VGG, a third architecture used in our previous system, was dropped). The residualnetwork (ResNet) architecture 28 is a standard CNN with added highway connections 29, i.e., a linear transform of each layer’s input to the layer’s output 29, 30. We apply batch normalization 31 before computing rectified linear unit (ReLU) activations. The LACE (layerwise context expansion with attention) model is a modified CNN architecture 32. LACE, first proposed in 32 and depicted in Figure 1, is a variant of timedelay neural network (TDNN) 4 in which each higher layer is a weighted sum of nonlinear transformations of a window of lower layer frames. Lower layers focus on extracting simple local patterns while higher layers extract complex patterns that cover broader contexts. Since not all frames in a window carry the same importance, a learned attention mask is applied, shown as the “elementwise matrix product” in Figure 1. The LACE model thus differs from the earlier TDNN models 4, 33 in this attention masking, as well as the ResNetlike linear passthrough connections. As shown in the diagram, the model is composed of four blocks, each with the same architecture. Each block starts with a convolution layer with stride two, which subsamples the input and increases the number of channels. This layer is followed by four ReLU convolution layers with jumplinks similar to those used in ResNet. As for ResNet, batch normalization 31 is used between layers. 2.2. Bidirectional LSTM For our LSTMbased acoustic models we use a bidirectional architecture (BLSTM) 34 without frameskipping 11. The core model structure is the LSTM defined in 10. We found that using networks with more than six layers did not improve the word error rate on the development set, and chose 512 hidden units, per direction, per layer; this gave a reasonable tradeoff between training time and final model accuracy. BLSTM performance was significantly enhanced using a spatial smoothing technique, first described in 23. Briefly, a twodimensional topology is imposed on each layer, and activation patterns in which neighboring units are correlated are rewarded.
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TOPIC 70: LANGUAGE ( FINISH)

TOPIC 70: LANGUAGE ( FINISH)

Which language do you think has made the greatest contribution to the promotion of better understanding among the peoples of the world? The human race is divided by a multiplicity of languages, many of which have come to play an important part in the affairs of the world.    A little reflection reveals that the importance of a language is associated mainly with the ideas and knowledge it contains. The more ideas a language can convey to the peoples of the world, the more it will be used by people everywhere. Thus, the language that is used most extensively is the language that makes the greatest contribution to human progress and mutual understanding between peoples.    It cannot be denied that today the most widely used language is the English language. There are few countries in which this language is not understood or used. Even the countries which preached hatred for everything English, including the English language, during their struggle for independence from British rule such as India, found it difficult to dispense with this language after they became independent. Therefore, they not only continued to use English in all spheres of public activity but also began to encourage the use and study of the English language as means of achieving national progress and unity. These efforts on the part of the various countries of the world convey an idea of the importance of the English language.    It would be instructive, however to consider the reason for the extensive use of the English language. One of the reasons is that several countries in the world have been occupied mainly by immigrants from England such as the United States of America, Australia and New Zealand. It is therefore not surprising that the people of such countries have continued to use the English language, though they have severed their political connexions with their mother country and acquired independent status, for one cannot discard one’s language easily.  Another reason is that, in the course or history, a large number of countries throughout the world came directly under British rule, where English was made the main language for administrative, commercial and all other purposes.    As the leading colonial power in the world, England has indeed exerted a profound influence on the affairs of the world, though her colonial possessions are rapidly becoming independent one after the other. Concomitantly, the English language too has come to play a leading role in international communication. Thus, many people whose native language is not English have studied English and become more conversation with English than with their own languages. This is especially true with the leaders of the people to whom English is a foreign language. As a result, the English language is used by them not only in the administration of their countries but also in all their institutions of higher learning.    The most important reason for the pre-eminence of the English language, however, is that it is the source of all knowledge. The Industrial Revolution that began in England and spread to other countries revealed the English genius for invention. Even the political and social institutions of England, which were affected tremendously by the Industrial Revolution, have evoked the admiration of all countries. The knowledge, ideas, experiences and profound thoughts of the English people have made a deep impression on the minds of the people of other countries. Innumerable books have been written in the English language on all branches of study, and such is the thirst of English scholars for knowledge and their desire to communicate it, that they have even translated books of great value from other language to English for the benefit of all. Writers of other nationalities too have written a great number of books in English and made a substantial contribution to the enrichment of the English language. As a result of all these efforts, the English language has become the main avenue to the greatest storehouse or information. Therefore, people everywhere have developed a special respect for the language and they continue to learn it with avidity.    As the English language is used so extensively it is mainly in this language that the peoples of the world communicate with and understand one another. No other language has such a wide appeal or popularity. I am therefore of the opinion that it is the English language that has made the greatest contribution to the promotion of the better understanding among the peoples of the world.    NEW WORDS: 1. multiplicity (n): vô số 2. mutual (adj): qua lại, lẫn nhau 3. preach (v): chủ trương, thuyết giáo 4. immigrant (n) : người nhập cư 5. connexion (n) : mối quan hệ 6. discard (v) : vứt bỏ, thải hồi 7. administrative (adj) : (thuộc) hành chính 8. commercial (adj) : (thuộc) thương mại 9. concomitantly (adv) : đi đôi với, đồng thời 10. pre-eminence (n) : sưu việt hơn hẳn 11. evoke (v): gợi lên 12. innumerable (adj) : vô số 13. substantial (adj) : lớn lao, đáng kể, quan trọng 14. avidity (n) : sự khát khao 15. appeal (n) : sự hấp dẫn
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LANGUAGE TEACHING STRATEGIES AND TECHNIQUES USED TO SUPPORT STUDENTS LEARNING IN A LANGUAGE OTHER THAN THEIR MOTHER TOUNGE

LANGUAGE TEACHING STRATEGIES AND TECHNIQUES USED TO SUPPORT STUDENTS LEARNING IN A LANGUAGE OTHER THAN THEIR MOTHER TOUNGE

ElicitingEliciting was a technique that was used a total of 20% in lesson observations. This strategyhelps a teacher to bring forward student’s ideas and extend and sustain discussion whichFisher (2005) considers to be an important function of a teacher. Conversations that extendpast a single exchange may help a learner’s language development as it could provide amore realistic model of how an authentic conversation occurs (Wells 1986). This kind ofdiscussion might also help to reveal to a teacher “... the framework the children are using tointerpret new information” (Wells 1986:115) and might possibly provide children with some ofthe language and ideas they will need to complete subsequent activities.Modeling of Target LanguageThe modeling of target language was a strategy that accounted for 19% of the strategies andtechniques used during lesson observations. Hill and Flynn (2006:23) suggest that,“Language structure and form should be learned in authentic contexts rather than throughcontrived drills in language workbooks”. The modeling of target language would seemtherefore to be an extremely important strategy for teachers to use, as these models may bea student’s only guide on how the additional language is used in a natural environment.Think AloudsThink alouds were a strategy and technique that were noticed a total of 13% of the timeduring lesson observations. A think aloud can be defined as the offering of a teacher’s innerdialogue or opinions out loud for students to hear their thoughts, ideas and to model selfregulation of the thinking process possibly through questions such as; “What am I going todo now?”, “What is my problem?”, “I wonder what would happen if…” . Fisher (2005:47)9suggests that the strategy of thinking aloud provides teachers the opportunity “…to modelthe world as we understand it in words”. The use of such a strategy may enable learners tohear more authentic and broader examples of the target language (Nunan 1991) andpossibly help to scaffold and develop their own thinking skills (Fisher 2005).Modeling of Activities
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SÁCH SINH HỌC BẰNG TIẾNG ANH

SÁCH SINH HỌC BẰNG TIẾNG ANH

A-levelAnthropologyANTH3/Unit 3 Global and Local: Societies, Environments and GlobalisationMark scheme2111June 2014Version: 1.0 FinalMark schemes are prepared by the Lead Assessment Writer and considered, together with therelevant questions, by a panel of subject teachers. This mark scheme includes any amendmentsmade at the standardisation events which all associates participate in and is the scheme which wasused by them in this examination. The standardisation process ensures that the mark scheme coversthe students’ responses to questions and that every associate understands and applies it in the samecorrect way. As preparation for standardisation each associate analyses a number of students’scripts: alternative answers not already covered by the mark scheme are discussed and legislated for.If, after the standardisation process, associates encounter unusual answers which have not beenraised they are required to refer these to the Lead Assessment Writer.It must be stressed that a mark scheme is a working document, in many cases further developed andexpanded on the basis of students’ reactions to a particular paper. Assumptions about future markschemes on the basis of one year’s document should be avoided; whilst the guiding principles ofassessment remain constant, details will change, depending on the content of a particularexamination paper.Further copies of this Mark Scheme are available from aqa.org.ukCopyright © 2014AQA and its licensors. All rights reserved.AQA retains the copyright on all its publications. However, registered schools/colleges for AQA are permitted to copy material from thisbooklet for their own internal use, with the following important exception: AQA cannot give permission to schools/colleges to photocopy anymaterial that is acknowledged to a third party even for internal use within the centre.
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ENTREPRENEURSHIP HANDBOOK OF QUALITATIVE RESEARCH METHODS IN ENTREPRENEURSHIP

ENTREPRENEURSHIP HANDBOOK OF QUALITATIVE RESEARCH METHODS IN ENTREPRENEURSHIP

publication pressure trend has taken considerably longer to hit Europe,European business schools and universities are increasingly hiring and promoting faculty primarily based on research productivity measured by publication in highly ranked international journals (Gartner and Birley 2002).It is therefore time to consider whether and how it is possible to avoidfalling into the trap of enforced methodological orthodoxy that such astrategy might well entail. On the other hand, we need to consider the consistent criticism directed at qualitative research for lacking rigour and stringency as a stumbling block to publication of qualitative research. In sum,these observations collectively point to a need for a handbook of qualitative research methods in entrepreneurship research.As qualitative research in entrepreneurship is often rejected by mainstream journals due to lack of sufficient methodological detail and rigour(Gartner and Birley 2002), a better set of method selection guidelines therefore seems to be needed (Hindle 1994). The aim of this handbook is tointroduce a spectrum of the qualitative research methods currently used, toincrease the understanding of the versatility, usefulness and systematicrigour of these research methods, and to provide guidance on how they canbe appropriately and fruitfully employed. The handbook aspires to assistexisting and future researchers to make informed choices of design by providing concrete examples of research experiences, and offering tangible‘how-to’ advice. We hope that by clarifying what these methods entail, howthey are currently being used, and how they can be evaluated, this handbook may come to be perceived asa methodological toolbox’. Ultimately,we hope that it will enable advocates to respond to reasonable criticism,enlighten the critics and cut off unfounded attacks while at the same timedemonstrating the width, scope and variety of qualitative methods.The goal of qualitative research is to develop concepts that enhance theunderstanding of social phenomena in natural settings, with due emphasison the meanings, experiences and views of all participants. The generalassumption underpinning this handbook is that the phenomenon of entrepreneurship is too dynamic and complex to be captured by a single method.This is not advocating that ‘anything goes’, but should be seen as anencouragement of methodological pluralism and tolerance. We believe thatqualitative research has the ability to explore hitherto uncharted depths inthe field of entrepreneurship and to contribute significantly to the advancement of the field.The audience for this book, therefore, includes all academics who wish tostudy the entrepreneurship phenomenon, based upon qualitative approaches.
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Đề thi thử THPTQG môn Tiếng Anh THPT Lý Chính Thắng 2015

Đề thi thử THPTQG môn Tiếng Anh THPT Lý Chính Thắng 2015

SỞ GIÁO DỤC - ĐÀO TẠO HÀ TĨNH TRƯỜNG THPT LÝ CHÍNH THẮNG ĐỀ CHÍNH THỨC               (Đề thi có 04 trang)     ĐỀ THI THỬ TRUNG HỌC QUỐC GIA NĂM 2015 Môn thi: TIẾNG ANH Thời gian làm bài: 90 phút, không kể thời gian phát đề       Mã đề thi: 284       Mark the letter A, B, C, or D on your answer sheet to indicate the word that differs from the rest in the position of the main stress in each of the following questions. Question 1: A. attract                         B. decide                     C. reject                      D. beauty Question 2: A. delicate                       B. promotion               C. volcanic                  D. resources Choose the letter A, B, C or D to indicate the word whose underlined part is pronounced differently from that of the rest in each of the following questions. Question 3: A. linked                         B. declared                  C. finished                  D. developed Question 4: A. heavy                         B. head                        C. weather                  D. easy Mark the letter A, B, C, or D on your answer sheet to indicate the correct answer to each of the following questions. Question 5: “The table is too heavy for me to move alone.” Which of the following has the OPPOSITE meaning with “heavy”?      A. light                            B. easy                           C. old                          D. small Question 6: A few animals sometimes fool their enemies _______ to be dead. A. have been appearing      B. to be appearing       C. to appear                D. by appearing Question 7: On _______ he had won, he jumped for joy. A. he was told                 B. having told               C. being told               D. telling Question 8: It has been raining ______ I got up.      A. when                           B. since                           C. until                       D. as Question 9: When a fire broke out in the Louvre, at least twenty _______ paintings were destroyed, including two by Picasso.       A. worthless                    B. priceless                     C. valueless                 D. worthy Question 10: Learning English isn't so difficult once you_______ . A. get on it                      B. get off it                    C. get down to it        D. get down with it Question 11: Next week when there ______ a full moon, the ocean tide will be higher.     A. is                                      B. will be                       C. is being                   D. will have been Question 12: _____ is the natural environment in which plants or animals live.      A. Ecology                       B. Habitat                    C. Extinction              D. Biodiversity      Question 13: I have told you not to do it_______ .      A. hundreds of times   B. many hundred times     C. hundred times        D. a hundred times Question 14: George wouldn't have met Mary_______ to his brother's graduation party.      A. had he not gone          B. hadn't he gone           C. if he has not gone   D. if he shouldn't have gone Question 15: “He insisted on listening to the entire story”. “Which of the following has the SAME meaning with entire”?     A. whole                           B. funny                         C. interesting              D. part Question 16: Jane’s brother doesn’t work as a worker and she doesn’t ______.      A. neither                        B. so                               C. too                          D. either Question 17: It is generally believed that “men build the ________ and women make it home”.      A. school                         B. bridge                        C. hospital                   D. house Question 18: Venice, ______ was built on water, is a city in Italy.      A. where                          B. that                            C. who                        D. which Question 19: It is recommended that he  ___________ this course.      A. took                            B.  take                          C.  takes                      D. taking Question 20: We bought some _______.      A. German lovely old glasses                                            B. German old lovely glasses      C. lovely old German glasses                                            D. old lovely German glasses Question 21: Tom. "I'm sorry. I won't be able to come". - Mary. “_______”.      A. Great                          B. Oh, that's annoying   C. Well, never mind    D. Sounds like fun Question 22: My friend is very ______ in listening to rock music.      A. interested                    B. amused                      C. surprised                 D. amazed Question 23: If you had taken my advice, you _______ in such difficulties now.      A. wouldn't have been    B. hadn't been                C. wouldn't be                        D. won't be Question 24: One's fingerprints are _______ other person.      A. different from                                                   B. different from any        C. differ from any                                                 D. different from those of any Question 25: I have a good job with good salary. You _________ send me any money, my lovely father. A. mustn’t                       B. mightn’t                    C. mayn’t                  D. needn’t Question 26: ___ appears considerably larger at the horizon than it does overhead is merely an optical illusion.      A. The Moon                   B. The Moon which       C. When the Moon     D. That the Moon Question 27: I should very much like to have gone to that party of theirs, but _______ A. I'm not invited                                                   B. I will not be invited            C. I have not been invited                                     D. I was not invited Question 28: The last person __________  will have to turn off the lights.      A. have left                        B. left                          C. leaving                    D. to leave Question 29: She listened so attentively that not a word_______.      A. she had missed              B. she missed              C. she didn't miss       D. did she miss Question 30: When I came to visit her last night, she ________ a bath.      A. is having                        B. was having                         C. has                          D. had Question 31: My family consist ________ five people: my parents, my two younger brothers and I.      A. on                                  B. of                            C. over                        D. up Question 32: Staying in a hotel costs _______ renting a room in a dormitory for a week.      A. as much as twice           B. twice as much as    C. twice more than     D. twice as Question 33: Jim painted the gate _________ than his father did 2 years ago. A. badly                             B. bad                            C. worst                     D. worse Mark the letter A, B, C, or D on your answer sheet to show the underlined part that needs correction. Question 34: The novelist Shirley Hazzard is noted for the insight, poetic style, and sensitive she                         A                                                           B                                                       C demonstrates   in her works.          D Question 35: My father asked me where had I gone the night before.                                             A                       B                 C           D Question 36: The harder he tried, the worst he danced before the large audience.                     A                     B             C                          D      Question 37: Lake Superior, that lies on the US Canadian border, is the largest lake in North    America.                                                  A        B                                                             C         D                 Mark the letter A, B, C, or D on your answer sheet to choose the sentence which is closest in meaning to the given one. Question 38: He  started learning English six years ago A. He has learned English for six years B. It was six years ago did he start learning English C. He hasn’t learned English for six years D. It is six years since he has learned English. Question 39: When the unemployment rate is high, the crime rate is usually also high. A. The unemployment rate and the crime rate are both higher. B. The higher the unemployment rate is, the higher the crime rate is. C. The unemployment rate is as high as the crime rate. D. The high rate of unemployment depends on the high rate of crime. Question 40: I wish you hadn't said that. A. I wish you not to say that.                               B. If only you didn't say that. C. I hope you will not say that.                            D. It would be nice if you hadn't said that. Question 41: They will buy a new house next year.       A. A new house is bought next year.       B. A new house will been bought next year.       C. A new house has been bought next year.       D. A new house will be bought next year. Mark the letter A, B, C, or D on your answer sheet to indicate the one that best completes each sentence. Question 42: Although the sun was shining, __________________                      A. but it was very hot                                     B. it wasn’t very hot               C. yet it was very hot                                     D. it was very hot Question 43: The shirt is so small _____________. A. that I can’t wear it                                     B. for me to wear it C. enough that I can’t wear                            D. and I can’t wear Question 44: ______________, he would go fishing. A. If today is Sunday                         B. If today were Sunday C. Unless today was Sunday              D. Unless today would be Sunday Question 45: Having been selected to represent the Association of American Engineers at the International Convention, __________. A. the members applauded him                            B. a speech had to be given by him C. the members congratulated him                      D. he gave a short acceptance speech Read the passage and choose the best answer among A, B, C, or D             When you apply for a job, one of the most important things is job interview. In order to make a good impression during a job interview, you need to prepare yourself for the interview carefully. Punctuation is very necessary. You should arrive in plenty of time so that you have a little of time to relax and keep calm before the interview. You should be well—dressed. Do not wear a skirt which is too short or jeans. You also need to plan what you are going to say. You have to answer a lot of questions about your education and experience. You may be asked many things about yourself and especially about the reason why you decide to apply for the job. You can ask the interviewer about the salary you expect, the position you are applying and the duties you have to do in the job. You also must try to find out as much as possible about the company you want to work for. Question 46: When you apply for a job ____________             A. job interview is not important.                               B. don't make any good impression.             C. preparation is not necessary.                                  D. interview is important for you to prepare. Question 47: What about punctuation?             A. Being late is all right.                                             B. You should arrive early enough to relax.             C. Punctuation is not important.                                 D. If you are late the interviewer will wait. Question 48: What about clothes?             A. You can wear whatever you like.                          B. You should be well dressed.             C. Jeans are suggested.                                               D.  short skirt makes you more attractive. Question 49: You may be asked about_____________             A. your study                                                              B. the reason why you are interested in the job                  C. your experience                                                      D. All are correct Question 50: You can ask the interviewer about______________             A. the salary, position and duties                               B. the salary, position and his age             C. the salary and the interviewer's education       D. the salary, the interviewer's family and his duties Read the following passage and mark the letter A, B, C, or D on your answer sheet to indicate the correct word for each of the blanks 51 to 60.        We are using up the world’s petroleum. We use (51) _________in our cars and to heat our building in winter.Farmers use petrochemicals to (52) _________ the soil rich. They use them to kill insects (53) _________eat plants. These chemicals go (54) __________rivers and lakes and kill the fish there. Thousands of pollutants also go into the air and pollute it. Winds carry this (55) _________ air to other countries and other continents.         Poor farmers use the same land over and (56) __________ The land needs a rest so it will be better next year. However, the farmers must have food this year. Poor people cut down forests (57) _________ firewood. In some areas when the trees are gone, the land (58) _________ desert. Poor people can’t save the environment for the (59) ___________       This is not a problem for one country or one area of the world. It is a problem for all- humans. The people and the nations of the world must work together to   (60) ___________ the world’s resources. Question 51:   A. it                             B. them                       C. that                         D. those Question 52:   A. work                       B. change                    C. make                       D. let Question 53:   A. what                       B. who                                    C. whom                     D. which Question 54:   A. out                          B. for                           C. at                            D. into Question 55:   A. pollute                    B. polluting                 C. polluted                  D. pollution Question 56:   A. over                                    B. again                       C. repeatedly              D. repeating Question 57:   A. of                            B. for                           C. with                        D. at Question 58:   A. gets                         B. changes                   C. turns                       D. becomes Question 59:   A. future                     B. time being               C. times                       D. period Question 60:   A. recycle                    B. preserve                  C. keep                        D. reuse   Writing: What career would you like to choose after leaving school? Write an English essay (about 150 words) – Bạn thích chọn nghề gì sau khi học phổ thông? Viết một bài luận tiếng Anh khoảng 150 từ. Đáp án đề thi thử THPTQG môn Tiếng Anh - THPT Lý Chính Thắng năm 2015 1. D 2.A 3.B 4.D 5.A 6.D 7.C 8.B 9.B 10.C 11.A 12.B 13.A 14.A 15.A 16.D 17.D 18.D 19.B 20.C 21.C 22..A 23.C 24.D 25.D 26.D 27.D 28.D 29.D 30.B 31.B 32..B 33.D 34.C 35.B 36.C 37.A 38.A 39.B 40.D 41.D 42.B 43.A 44.B 45.D 46.D 47.B 48.B 49.D 50.A 51.A 52.C 53.D 54.D 55.C 56.A 57.B 58.D 59.A 60.B WRITING: The mark given to this part is based on the following scheme: 1. Content: (40% of total mark) a provision of all main ideas and as details as appropriate. 2. Organization & Presentation: (30% of total mark) ideas are organized and presented with coherence, style, and clarity appropriate to the level of English language gifted upper-secondary school students. 3. Language: (30% of total mark) a variety of vocabulary and structures appropriate to the level of English language gifted upper-secondary school students.
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Chapter 1a Propositional Logic I Discrete Mathematics II BK TPHCM

Chapter 1a Propositional Logic I Discrete Mathematics II BK TPHCM

(Materials drawn from Chapter 1 in: “Michael Huth and Mark Ryan. Logic in Computer Science: Modelling and Reasoning about Systems, 2nd Ed., Cambridge University Press, 2006.”) Nguyen An Khuong, Huynh Tuong Nguyen Faculty of Computer Science and Engineering University of Technology, VNUHCM Contents 1 Propositional Calculus: Declarative Sentences 2 Propositional Calculus: Natural Deduction Sequents Rules for natural deduction Basic and Derived Rules Excursion: Intuitionistic Logic 3 Propositional Logic as a Formal Language 4 Semantics of Propositional Logic Meaning of Logical Connectives Preview: Soundness and Completeness 5 Conjunctive Normal Form
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Ôn tập hóa học bằng tiếng anh

Ôn tập hóa học bằng tiếng anh

Question 1: a. Present a nitrogen cycle within the earth system. b. Present organic matter classification in soils. c. Write a cellulose molecular structure with four sugar monosaccharides. a. Present a nitrogen cycle within the earth system. From the diagram of global nitrogen cycle, we can summarize key processes:  Stock of soil nitrogen depends on N fixation processes and decay processes of organic N compounds.  Major fixation processes consist of biological fixation and HaberBosh process.  Decay processes include ammonification (mineralization), nitrification, denitrification.  Biological N fixation:  HaberBoschindustrial N fixation: The Haber Process combines nitrogen from the air with hydrogen derived mainly from natural gas (methane) into ammonia. N2 + 3H2 > 2NH3 (ΔH = −92.4 kJ•mol−1)  Ammonificationmineralization: Nitrogen enters the soil through the decomposition of protein in dead organic matter Amino acids + 1 ½ O2 > CO2 + H2O + NH3+ 736kJ This process liberates a lot of energy which can be used by the saprotrophic microbes  Nitrification:  Denitrification: Denitrification is a natural soil microbial process where nitrate (NO3 ) is converted to nitrogen (N) gases that are lost to the atmosphere. b. Present organic matter classification in soils. There are many classifications of soil organic mater.  NONHUMIC SUBSTANCES • Carbohydrates  Carbohydrates consists of monosaccharides (single sugars), disaccharides, polysaccharides. The simplest carbohydrates are monosaccharides, or single sugars.  Carbohydrate macromolecules are polysaccharides, polymers composing of many sugar building blocks. • Proteins  Proteins account for more than 50% of the dry mass of most cells.
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Đề thi thử đại học môn Anh khối D,A1 có đáp án năm 2014 (P14)

Đề thi thử đại học môn Anh khối D,A1 có đáp án năm 2014 (P14)

 ĐỀ THI THỬ ĐẠI HỌC MÔN ANH KHỐI D, A1 NĂM 2014  Mark the letter A, B, C, or D on your answer sheet to indicate the word that differs from the other three in the position of the primary stress. Question 1:  A. permanent     B. continue    C. complete   D. relationship Question 2:  A. endanger     B. geometry   C. opposite      D. geography Question 3: A. habitat       B. debate         C. behaviour     D. insider Question 4:  A. luxurious     B. conservative    C. necessary     D. dependant Question 5:   A. uncertain     B. arrogant      C. familiar       D. impatient  Mark the letter A, B, C, or D on your answer sheet to indicate the correct answer. Question 6: The smell of the sea ____________ his childhood. A. took him in   B. took after    C. took him back to   D. took it for granted   Question 7: We spent nearly 3 hours waiting outside the station, then out ______________. A. the star came  B.  did the star come  C. came the star  D. be the star coming Question 8: Larry drove all night to get here for his sister's wedding. He ___ exhausted by the time he arrived. A. must have been                      B. could be                  C. ought to be                             D. will have been        Question 9: We are ___ no obligation to change goods which were not purchased here. A. to                 B. with               C. at                      D. under Question 10: Not only _____ the exam but she also got a scholarship. A. did she pass                                         B. she passed C. she has passed                                    D. has she passed Question 11: " ____ stupid, you will never get good marks by cheating." A. Be not            B. Not be            C. Don't be            D. Won't be Question 12: Nothing ___ the ordinary ever happens here.               A. about              B. out of             C. from                D. within * out of the ordinary : unusual or different Question 13: I supposed, as ___ we all, that the meeting would be cancelled. A. did         B. equally           C. would                D. just Question 14: "You ___ put the car in the garage. I'm going out in it later". A. mustn't          B. haven't           C. needn't             D. can't Question 15:  He had spent ____ time writing an essay on his childhood A. a few         B. a large number of    C. a great deal of       D. many Question 16: Despite all the interruptions, he ____ with his work. A. pressed on        B. held on        C. stuck at             D. hung out Question 17: He'll probably want to know if you ____. A. will have been drinking                  B. didn't drink C. had drunk                                   D. have been drinking Question 18: My father is getting old and forgetful. _______, he is experienced and helpful. A. Be that as it may                           B. Regardless   C. Inasmuch as it is                         D. Consequently Question 19: Many a _________ it difficult to avoid the interference of mass media in their life. A. pop star find      B. pop star finds   C. pop stars find     D. pop stars finds Question 20: All candidates will be treated equally, ____ of their age or back ground. A. irrelevant       B. Discounting        C. notwithstanding       D. irrespective  Question 21: He tried to limit himself to ____ 10 cigarettes a day.       A. be smoking         B. have smoked   C. smoke        D. smoking Question 22: The tin opener seemed ______________  for left-hand people. A.  to be designed                         B. being designed        C. to design                                D. designing Question 23: Rarely have I visited _______Ljubljana, the capital ofSlovenia. A. as a beautiful city as             B. as beautiful a city as            C. as beautiful as the city          D. as a city as beautiful as       Question 24:   I found it very hard to ____ between the two sounds. A. differentiate           B. pick             C. discern                D. tell Question 25: The writer has ____ finished his new novel. A. most of          B. most               C. all most             D. almost Question 26: You should study hard to _____ your classmates. A. catch sight of                      B. feel like C. get in touch with                 D. keep pace with Question 27: It is imperative ___________ towards a solution to global warming before the  weather   patterns of the world are disrupted irreparably. A. the world would work                     B. that the world worked C. that the world work                      D.  the world to work                       Question 28:  It's vital that our children's handwriting should be ____.         A. legible           B. legitimate           C. literate              D. illiterate Question 29: Before Alexander Fleming discovered penicillin, many people died ___ A. infected with simple bacteria          B. from simple bacterial infections C. infections were simple bacteria       D. infecting of simple bacteria Question 30: It was ____ we couldn't stop laughing. A. such a funny sight that                            B. so a funny sight that C. a very funny sight that                      D. so a laughing sight that Mark the letter A, B, C, or D on your answer sheet to indicate the word/phrase that is closest in meaning to the underlined part, Question 31: For calculating a calendar, it is convenient to use the tropical solar year. A. practical                                   B.  critical        C. necessary                               D. appropriate Question 32: The medical community continues to make progress in the fight against cancer.   A. speed                                        B. expect more    C. do better                                   D. treat better Question 33: As all of us cannot be available today, let's put off the discussion till later. A. present for the event                  B. scheduled for the event C. arranged for the event              D. appointed for the event Mark the letter A, B, C, or D on your answer sheet to indicate the word or phrase that is OPPOSITE in meaning to the underlined part in each of the following questions. Question 34: They have not made any effort to integrate     with the local community. A. cooperate           B. put together         C. separate            D. connect Question 35: There has been insufficient rainfall over the past two years, and farmers are having trouble.  A. adequate        B. unsatisfactory          C. abundant         D. dominant Read the following passage adapted from Microsoft ® Encarta ® 2009 and mark the letter A, B, C, or D on your answer sheet to indicate the correct word for each of the blanks from 19 to 28.   Feminism, collective term for systems of belief and theories that pay special (36) ____________ to women’s rights and women’s position in culture and society. The term tends to be used for the women’s rights movement, which began in the late 18th century and continues to campaign for complete political, social, and economic equality between women and men. This article (37)_______ specifically with the development of the ideas behind that movement and their  (38) ___________ and impact. Feminists are united by the idea that women’s position in society is unequal to (39)_______ of men, and that society is structured in such a way as to benefit men to the political, social, and economic (40) _________ of women. However, feminists have used different theories to explain these (41) ___________ and have advocated different ways of redressing inequalities, and there are marked geographic and historical variations in the nature of feminism. Historically, feminist thought and activity can be divided into two waves. The first wave, which began in about 1800 and (42) ______ until the 1930s, was largely concerned with gaining equal rights between women and men. The second wave, which began in the late 1960s, has continued to fight for (43) ______ but has also developed a (44)______ of theories and approaches that stress the difference between women and men and that draw attention to the (45) _____ needs of women. Question 36:  A. notice      B. attention         C. benefit           D. equality Question 37:  A. deals        B. tends           C. develops         D. initiates Question 38:  A. pressure     B. problem      C. variation        D. influence Question 39:  A. most        B. those          C. that                 D. which Question 40:   A. detriment        B. benifit      C. position     D. advocate Question 41:  A. difference       B. attention     C. equalities      D. inequalities Question 42:  A. widened        B. spent        C. lasted          D. lengthened Question 43:  A. freedom        B. independence     C. tradition       D. equality Question 44:  A. kind            B. sort           C. range              D. type Question 45:  A. definite       B. specific       C. vague            D. general  Read the following passage adapted from Britannica and mark the letter A, B, C, or D on your answer sheet to indicate the correct answer to each of the questions. The biologist's role in society as well as his moral and ethical responsibility in the discovery and development of new ideas has led to a reassessment of his social and scientific value systems. A scientist can no longer ignore the consequences of his discoveries; he is as concerned with the possible misuses of his findings as he is with the basic research in which he is involved. This emerging social and political role of the biologist and all other scientists requires a weighing of values that cannot be done with the accuracy or the objectivity of a laboratory balance. As a member of society, it is necessary for a biologist now to redefine his social obligations and his functions, particularly in the realm of making judgments about such ethical problems as man's control of his environment or his manipulation of genes to direct further evolutionary development. As a result of recent discoveries concerning hereditary mechanisms, genetic engineering, by which human traits are made to order, may soon be a reality. As desirable as it may seem to be, such an accomplishment would entail many value judgments. Who would decide, for example, which traits should be selected for change? In cases of genetic deficiencies and disease, the desirability of the change is obvious, but the possibilities for social misuse are so numerous that they may far outweigh the benefits. Probably the greatest biological problem of the future, as it is of the present, will be to find ways to curb environmental pollution without interfering with man's constant effort to improve the quality of his life. Many scientists believe that underlying the spectre of pollution is the problem of surplus human population. A rise in population necessitates an increase in the operations of modern industry, the waste products of which increase the pollution of air, water, and soil. The question of how many people the resources of the Earth can support is one of critical importance. Although the solutions to these and many other problems are yet to be found, they do indicate the need for biologists to work with social scientists and other members of society in order to determine the requirements necessary for maintaining a healthy and productive planet. For although many of man's present and future problems may seem to be essentially social, political, or economic in nature, they have biological ramifications that could affect the very existence of life itself. Question 46: According to the passage, a modern scientist should be more concerned about ____.         A. his basic research                                B. the development of new ideas C. his manipulation of genes                   D. the consequences of his discoveries Question 47: The pronoun "it" in paragraph 2 refers to ____. A. a reality                                                     B. an accomplishment         C. genetic engineering                                        D. hereditary mechanism Question 48: It is implied in the passage that genetic engineering ____. A. may do us more harm than good        B. is no longer desirable          C. is the most desirable for life              D. will change all human traits           Question 49: The pronoun "they" in paragraph 2 refers to ____.        A. discoveries concerning hereditary mechanisms                    B. effects of genetic engineering misuse                            C. cases of genetic deficiencies                                 D. possibilities for genetic deficiencies Question 50: What is probably the most important biological problem mentioned in the passage? A. social and economic deficiencies                B. manipulation of genes   C. genetic engineering misuse                       D. environmental pollution Question 51: The word "which" in paragraph 3 refers to ____. A. activities of an overpopulated society's industry B. the waste products dumped into our environment C. activities of surplus human population                                      D. serious environmental pollution Question 52: The word "underlying" in paragraph 3 could best be replaced by "____". A. noticing         B. causing          C. finding              D. depriving Question 53: According to the passage, to save our planet, biologists should work  A. harder and harder                               B. accurately and objectively  C. on social and political purposes            D. with other social scientists                  Question 54: Which of the following is closest in meaning to the word "ramifications" in paragraph 4? A. useful experiments                            B. effective techniques            C. harmful consequences                       D. latest developments Question 55: What is the author's purpose in this passage? A. To conduct a survey of the biologist's role in society B. To urge biologists to solve the problem of surplus human population C. To emphasize the biologist's role in solving the world's problems    D. To advise biologists to carry out extensive research into genetic engineering  Read the following passage adapted from MS Encarta 2008 and mark the letter A, B, C, or D on your answer sheet to indicate the correct answer to each of the questions.   In early civilizations, citizens were educated informally, usually within the family unit. Education meant simply learning to live. As civilizations became more complex, however, education became more formal, structured, and comprehensive. Initial efforts of the ancient Chinese and Greek societies concentrated solely on the education of males. The post-Babylonian Jews and Plato were exceptions to this pattern. Plato was apparently the first significant advocate of the equality of the sexes. Women, in his ideal state, would have the same rights and duties and the same educational opportunities as men. This aspect of Platonic philosophy, however, had little or no effect on education for many centuries, and the concept of a liberal education for men only, which had been espoused by Aristotle, prevailed.                In ancient Rome, the availability of an education was gradually extended to women, but they were taught separately from men. The early Christians and medieval Europeans continued this trend, and single-sex schools for the privileged classes prevailed through the Reformation period. Gradually, however, education for women on a separate but equal basis to that provided for men was becoming a clear responsibility of society. Martin Luther appealed for civil support of schools for all children. At the Council of Trent in the 16th century, the Roman Catholic Church encouraged the establishment of free primary schools for children of all classes. The concept of universal primary education, regardless of sex, had been born, but it was still in the realm of the single-sex school. In the late 19th and early 20th centuries, co-education became a more widely applied principle of educational philosophy. InBritain,Germany, and theSoviet Union the education of boys and girls in the same classes became an accepted practice. Since World War II,Japan and the Scandinavian countries have also adopted relatively universal co-educational systems. The greatest negative reaction to co-education has been felt in the teaching systems of the Latin countries, where the sexes have usually been separated at both primary and secondary levels, according to local conditions. A number of studies have indicated that girls seem to perform better overall and in science in particular in single-sex classes: during the adolescent years, pressure to conform to stereotypical female gender roles may disadvantage girls in traditionally male subjects, making them reluctant to volunteer for experimental work while taking part in lessons. In Britain, academic league tables point to high standards achieved in girls' schools. Some educationalists therefore suggest segregation of the sexes as a good thing, particularly in certain areas, and a number of schools are experimenting with the idea. Question 56: Ancient education generally focused its efforts on ____.                                                  A. on male learners    B. both sexes   C. female learners   D. young people only Question 57: Education in early times was mostly aimed at ____. A. teaching skills                                           B. learning to live C. learning new lifestyles                             D. imparting survival skills Question 58: The first to support the equality of the sexes was ____. A. the Chinese         B. the Greek        C. Plato           D. the Jews Question 59: The word "informally" in this context mostly refers to an education           occurring____. A. in classrooms    B. outside the school      C. in a department       D. ability Question 60: When education first reached women, they were ____. A. locked up in a place with men          B. isolated from normal life C. deprived of opportunities                 D. separated from men             Question 61:   When the concept of universal primary education was introduced, education____.     A. was given free to all                                  B.was intended for all the sexes           C. focused on imparting skills          D. was intended to leave out female learners                                                                 Question 62: The word "espouse" is contextually closest in meaning to "____".   A. to introduce         B. to put off        C. to give            D. to induce     Question 63: Co-ed was negatively responded to in ____. A. Japan                                    B. the Scandinavian countries C. South American countries        D. conservative countries        Question 64: The word "tables" is closest in meaning to "____".     A. shapes       B. meeting tables         C. personalities            D. figures Question 65: The word "segregation" may be understood as "____". A. grouping        B. mixture            C. separation           D. extraction Mark the letter A, B, C, or D on your answer sheet to indicate the underlined part that needs correction.  Question 66: The museum contains sixth century sculptures, eighteenth century                                             A                                               B swords and the dress worn by nineteenth century royal family.                                      C                           D Question 67: When the children realized that they were by themselves in                                                                                             A the dark, they became  really  frightening        B                    C                     D                                                                     Question 68:  It is a good idea to be careful in buying or purchasing magazines from                     A                         B                                C salespersons who may come to your door.                                                                                C                                                                             Question 69: She finds the work she has to do quite easily; boredom is her biggest problem.                                     A                 B                     C                             D Question 70: Read the letter from her mother, she feels very happy.                      A                    B                             C              D                           Mark the letter A, B, C, or D on your answer sheet to indicate the sentence that is closest in meaning to the sentence given.   Question 71: He took the food eagerly because he had eaten nothing since dawn. A. He had eaten nothing since dawn although he took the food eagerly. B. The food was taken at dawn and he had nothing to eat then. C. He had eaten something before but he took the food eagerly.                                    D. Having eaten nothing since dawn, he took the food eagerly. Question 72: Anne jogs every morning. It is very good for her health. A. Anne jogs every morning and is very good for her health. B. Anne jogs every morning, which is very good for her health. C. Anne jogs every morning and then it is very good for her health D. Anne jogs every morning that it is very good for her health. Question 73: The review overvalued his latest film.    A. The review had a high opinion of his latest film.      B. The review turned down his latest film.       C. The review rejected his latest film. D. The review gave his latest film a moderate appreciation. Question 74: Scarcely had she arrived home when the quake happened. A. As soon as the quake took place, she arrived home. B. The quake took place before she arrived home.       C. Hardly the quake happened when she arrived home. D. No sooner had she arrived home than the quake happened. Question 75: "Shall I turn on the heater for you?" Lane said to his grandpa. A. Lanewanted to turn on the heater for his grandpa. B. Lane offered to turn on the heater for his grandpa. C. Lanepromised to turn on the heater for his grandpa. D. Laneasked his grandpa to turn on the heater for him. Question 76: "Report yourself to the police and you'll get lighter penalty," John told his brother.          A. John asked his brother to give up himself to the police. B. John threatened his brother to report himself to the police. C. John promised his brother a report of himself to the police. D. John persuaded his brother to report himself to the police. Question 77: "Getting a good job doesn't matter much to me." A. "I am only interested in getting a good job."                B. "It's interesting for me to get a good job." C. "I am not good at getting a good job."                                          D. "I don't care about getting a good job." Question 78:  I should have studied last night, but I was too tired. A. I couldn't study last night because I was very tired. B. I studied last night because I had to.                                  C. I studied last night because I was bored.                                         D. I tried to study last night, but the homework was too hard. Question 79: It was wrong of you not to call the fire brigade at once.                       A. You didn't call the fire brigade because it was wrong.                                          B. Calling the fire brigade must be done at once.                                 C. You should have called the fire brigade at once.                                               D. The fire brigade was called at the wrong time. Question 80: We couldn't solve the problem until our teacher arrived. A. When our teacher arrived, we solved the problem. B. Not until our teacher arrived could we solve the problem. C. Until our teacher arrived, we were able to solve the problem. D. Not until we solved the problem could our teacher arrive.              ĐÁP ÁN ĐỀ THI THỬ ĐẠI HỌC MÔN ANH KHỐI D,A1 NĂM 2014  1A 2C 3A 4C 5C 6B 7C 8A 9D 10A 11C 12B 13A 14C 15C 16A 17D 18A 19B 20D 21D 22A 23B 24D 25D 26D 27C 28A 29B 30A 31A 32C 33A 34C 35A 36B 37A 38D 39C 40A 41D 42C 43D 44C 45B 46D 47C 48A 49B 50D 51A 52B 53D 54C 55C 56A 57B 58C 59D 60B 61B 62A 63C 64D 65C 66C 67D 68C 69C 70A 71D 72B 73A 74D 75B 76D 77D 78A 79C 80B Các bạn nhớ theo dõi các đề thi thử đại học môn Tiếng Anh khối D,A1 năm 2014 sẽ tiếp tục được Tuyensinh247 cập nhật các em chú ý theo dõi nhé!
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Đề thi thử THPTQG môn Tiếng Anh - THPT Nguyễn Huệ năm 2015

Đề thi thử THPTQG môn Tiếng Anh - THPT Nguyễn Huệ năm 2015

SỞ GD & ĐT THÁI BÌNH TRƯỜNG THPT NGUYỄN HUỆ   ĐỀ THI THỬ THPT QUỐC GIA LẦN 2   NĂM HỌC 2015 MÔN: ANH VĂN 12 Thời gian làm bài: 90  phút I. PHẦN TRẮC NGHIỆM: TỪ QUESTION 1 ĐẾN QUESTION 64 ( 8 điểm) Mark the letter A, B, C or D on your answer sheet to indicate the word that differs from pronunciation in each of the following questions from 1 to 2. Question 1: A. hours                          B. fathers                                 C. dreams                    D. thinks Question 2: A. element                       B. dedicate                               C. event                       D. devote Mark the letter A, B, C, or D to indicate the word that differs from the rest in the position of the main stress in each of the following questions from 3 to 4 Question 3: A. explain                                    B. involve                                C. purpose                   D. advise Question 4: A. suggestion                  B. cigarette                  C. environment                       D. protection Question 5: A. electronic                   B. insurance               C. understand                            D. expedition Mark the letter A, B, C, or D on your answer sheet to indicate the correct answer to each of the following questions from 6 to 30. Question 6: The trouble with Frank is that he never turns up on time for the meeting. A. arrives                                 B. tests                        C. delays                                 D. takes after Question 7: This shirt is ______ that one. A. much far expensive than                                  B. a bit less expensive C. as much expensive as                                       D. not nearly as expensive as Question 8:  My friend bought ___________ from a shop onTranPhu street. A. a nice brown leather belt                                 B. a brown nice leather belt C. a leather brown nice belt                                 D. a nice leather brown belt Question 9: It is reported that humans are the main reason for most species decline and habitat ________.         A. destroy                B. destructive                  C. destructor                   D. destruction Question 10: She built a high wall round her garden_________________          A. in order that her fruit not be stolen            B. to enable people not taking her fruit          C. so that her fruit would be stolen                D. to prevent her fruit from being stolen Question 11:__________he arrived at the bus stop when the bus came.                  A.  Hardly had                        B. No sooner had        C. No longer has                     D. Not until had     Question 12: David: “You ‘ve got a beautiful dress!’’- Helen: “___________.”                  A. I do                        B. Thank for your complement.           C. You,too                 D. Ok     Question 13: I try to be friendly but it is hard to _______ some of my colleagues.        A. get on with          B. watch out for              C. come up with              D. stand in for Question 14: I am bored with doing the _____ chores.          A. household          B. house                           C. housework                  D. homework Question 15: Shop assistant: “ __________”           Customer: “ Yes, I want to send some flowers to my wife inItaly.”                A. Do you like flowers                             B. What do you like                        C. Can you help me                                 D. How can I help you Question 16: She always had wanted to go to places_______she could spesk her native tongue. A. that             B. in that                     C. which                     D. where Question 17: It gets______to understand what the professor has explained. A. the more difficult                                      B. more difficult than            C. difficult more and more                             D. more and more difficult Question 18:  Petrol is___________________it used to. A. twice as expensive as                                 B. twice expensive more than                         C. twice more than expensive                         D. more expensive than twice     Question 19: The more you practise your English, ________  .           A. you will learn faster                                                B. the faster you will learn           C. faster you will learn                                                D. the faster will you learn       Question 20: My mother ______ me against staying late night after night to prepare for exams. A. encouraged               B. warned                      C. recommended           D. reprimanded Question 21: She must have been sleepless last night. Otherwise, her eyes _______ so bloody now. A. won’t look                B. looked                       C. would’t look             D. wouldn’t have looked  Question 22: Edith Harlow has kindly agree_____________. You should ask him. A. to helping               B. to help                    C. help                        D. helping       Question 23: It is necessary that children______________of their old parents. A. takes care                  B. to take care                C. take care                    D. took care Question 24: ________________that she could not say anything. A. So upset was she                                              B. But upset was she     C. However upset was she                                   D. Therefore upset was she Question 25: A keystone species is a species of plants or animals _______ absence has a major effect on an ecological system. A. its                                B. that is                          C. whose                         D. with its Question 26: There is only one Greek island                  I haven’t visited. A. which                        B. whom                        C. when                         D. who Question  27:  Had I studied harder, I______________better in the last exam. A. wouldn’t have done  B. had done                   C. would have done      D. would do Question 28: In order to be a good salesperson, you should have good communication______. A. skills                            B. things                          C. talent                           D. means Question 29: - Maria: “I’m taking my end term examination tomorrow".                              - Sarah:  "____________.” A. Good luck!                     B. Good day!                    C. Good time!                   D. Good chance! Question 30: We _________ lots of photos when we went toSingapore last year. A. made                           B. took                             C. did                              D. caught Mark the letter A, B, C, or D on your answer sheet to indicate the word or phrase that is CLOSEST in meaning to the underlined part in each of the following questions from 31 to 34. Question 31: :  Be careful! The tree is going to fall. A. Look out                     B. Look up                      C. Look on                      D. Look after Question 32: Childbearing is the women’s most wonderful role. A. bring up a child        B. giving birth to a baby   C. having no child      D. educating a child Question 33: : :  He was one of the most outstanding performers at the live show last night. A. impressive.                B. well- known              C. important                   D. easy- looking Question 34:The 1923 earthquake in Japan killed about 200,000 people and left countless wounded and homeless. A. poor                                B. imprisoned                      C. suffered                                D. injured       Mark the letter A, B, C, or  D on your answer sheet to show the underlined part that needs correction from  35 to 40.      Question 35: He is not able to define the process in which the body is protect by the immunologic system.                             A                 B                                  C                      D  Question 36: Do you ever feel that life is not being fair to you because you cannot seem to get the                                          A               B                                                      C     job where you want or that really suits you?               D Question 37: The wooden fence surrounded the factory is beginning to fall down because of the rain.                      A                            B                                                        C                              D Question 38: Williams not only took three showers a day and washed his clothes twice.                                               A                                   B     C                           D Question 39: Experts in climatology and other scientists are becoming extreme concerned about the                                    A                                                                                 B                          C changes to our climate which are taking place.                                                  D Read the following passage and mark the letter A, B, C or D on your answer sheet to indicate the correct  answer to each of the following questions from 40 to 49.   One of the most urgent environmental problems in the world today is the shortage of clean water. Having clean drinking water is a basic human right. But acid rain, (40) ________ pollution and garbage have made many sources of water undrinkable. Lakes, reservoirs and even entire seas have become vast pools (41) ________ poison.LakeBaikalinRussiais one of the largest lakes in the world. It (42) ________ a rich variety of animals and plants, including 1,300 rare species that do not exist (43) ________ else in the world. But they are being destroyed by the massive volumes of toxic effluent which (44) _______ into the lake every day. Even where law existed, the government did not have the power to enforce them.      Most industries simply ignore the regulations. TheMediterranean Sea(45) ________ 1% of the world's water surface. But it is the dumping (46) ________ for 50% of all marine pollution. Almost 16 countries regularly throw industrial wastes a few miles (47) ________ shore.      Water is free to everyone. A few years ago, people thought that the supply of clean water in the world was limitless. Today, many water supplies have been (48) ________ by pollution and sewage. Clean water is now scarce, and we are at last beginning to respect this precious (149) ________. We should do something now. Question  40: A. industrialized B. industry                 C. industrious            D. industrial Question  41: A. of                   B. in                           C. to                           D. on Question  42: A. composes       B. consists                  C. contains                 D. encloses Question  43: A. everywhere    B. where                    C. somewhere            D. anywhere Question  44: A. stay                B. pour                       C. burn                       D. boil Question  45: A. occupies         B. comprises              C. holds                     D. makes Question  46: A. soil                 B. shore                      C. land                       D. ground Question  47: A. on                   B. of                           C. off                         D. away Question  48: A. made              B. kept                       C. ruined                    D. conserved Question  49: A. outlet              B. source                    C. well                       D. nature   Read the following passage and mark the letter A, B, C or D on your answer sheet to indicate the correct  answer to each of the following questions from 50 to 59. Cities develop as a result of functions that they can perform. Some functions result directly from the ingenuity of the citizenry, but most functions result from the needs of the local area and of the surrounding hinterland (the region that supplies goods to the city and to which the city furnishes services and other goods). Geographers often make a distinction between the situation and the site of a city. Situation refers to the general position in relation to the surrounding region, whereas site involves physical characteristics of the specific location. Situation is normally much more important to the continuing prosperity of a city. If a city is well situated in regard to its hinterland, its development is much more likely to continue. Chicago, for example, possesses an almost unparalleled situation: it is located at the southern end of a huge lake that forces east-west transportation lines to be compressed into its vicinity, and at a meeting of significant land and water transport routes. It also overlooks what is one of the world’s finest large farming regions. These factors ensured that Chicago would become a great city regardless of the disadvantageous characteristics of the available site, such as being prone to flooding during thunderstorm activity.       Similarly, it can be argued that much of New York City’s importance stems from its early and continuing advantage of situation. Philadelphiaand Bostonboth originated at about the same time as New Yorkand shared New York’s location at the western end of one of the world’s most important oceanic trade routes, but only New Yorkpossesses an easy-access functional connection (the Hudson-Mohawk Lowland) to the vast Midwestern Hinterland. This account does not alone explain New York’s primacy, but it does include several important factors. Among the many aspects of situation that help to explain why some cities grow and others do not, original location on a navigable waterway seems particularly applicable. Of course, such characteristic as slope, drainage, power resources, river crossings, coastal shapes, and other physical characteristics help to determine city location, but such factors are normally more significant in early stages of city development than later.   Question  50: What does the passage mainly discuss? A. The development of trade routes throughUnited Statescities. B. Contrasts in settlement patterns inUnited States. C. Historical differences among three largeUnited Statescities. D. The importance of geographical situation in the growth ofUnited Statescities. Question  51: The word “ingenuity” in paragraph 1 is closest in meaning to _____.       A. wealth                          B. resourcefulness             C. traditions                      D. organization Question  52: According to the passage, a city’s situation is more important than its site in regard to the city’s _____.       A. long-term growth and prosperity                           B. ability to protect its citizenry       C. possession of favorable weather conditions           D. need to import food supplies Question  53: The author mentions each of the following as an advantage of Chicago’s location EXCEPT its _____.       A. hinterland                                                               B. nearness to a large lake       C. flat terrain                                                               D. position in regard to transport routes               Question  54: The word “characteristics” in paragraph 1 is closest in meaning to _____.       A. choices                         B. attitudes                       C. qualities                        D. inhabitants Question  55: The primary purpose of paragraph 1 is to _____.       A. summarize past research and introduce a new study       B. describe a historical period       C. emphasize the advantages of one theory over another       D. define a term and illustrate it with an example Question  56: According to the passage,Philadelphia andBoston are similar toNew York City in _____.       A. size of population                                                   B. age                                      C. site                                                                          D. availability of rail transportation Question  57: The word “functional” in paragraph 2 is closest in meaning to _____.       A. usable                           B. unknown                      C. original                         D. alternate Question  58: The word “it” in paragraph 2 refers to _____.       A. account                         B. primacy                         C. connection                    D. hinterland Question  59: The word “significant” in paragraph 2 is closest in meaning to _____.       A. threatening                   B. meaningful                   C. obvious                         D. available             Read the following passage and mark the letter A, B, C or D on your answer sheet to indicate the correct  answer to each of the following questions from 60 to 64.        The hippopotamus is the third largest land animal, smaller only than the elephant and the rhinoceros. Its name comes from two Greek words which mean “river horse”. The long name of this animal is often shortened to the easier to handle term “hippo.” The hippo has a natural affinity for the water. It does not float on top of the water; instead, it can easily walk along the bottom of a body of water. The hippo commonly remains underwater for three to five minutes and has been known to stay under for up to half an hour before coming up for air. In spite of its name, the hippo has relatively little in common with the horse and instead has a number of interesting similarities in common with the whale. When a hippo comes up after a stay at the bottom of a lake or river, it releases air through a blowhole, just like a whale. In addition, the hippo resembles the whale in that they both have thick layers of blubber for protection and they are almost completely hairless. Question 60:  The topic of this passage is______ A. the derivations of animal names.                        B. the largest land animal. C. the characteristics of the hippo.                          D. the relation between the hippo and the whale. Question 61:  The possessive “Its” in line 2 refers to______________ A. hippopotamus’            B. rhinoceros’                  C. horse’s                        D. elephant’s Question 62:  It can be inferred from the passage that the hippopotamus is commonly called a hippo because the word “hippo” is____________ A. easier for the animal to recognize.                      B. scientifically more accurate. C. simpler to pronounce accurately.                        D. the original name . Question 63:  The word “float” in line 4 is closest in meaning to_______________ A. eat                               B. drift                             C. sink                             D. flap Question 64:  According to the passage, what is the maximum time that hippos have been known to stay underwater ______________ A. thirty minutes             B. three minutes              C. five minutes                D. ninety minutes II. PHẦN TỰ LUẬN ( 2 điểm)                                   A. Finish each of the following sentences in such a way that it means exactly the same as the sentence before it. Question 1: My book is not as expensive as yours. Your book is _____________________________________ Question 2: : It took him two hours to drive toLondon. He spent ____________________________________________ Question 3: . Although he was very tired, he managed to finish the marathon race. In spite of_________________________________________ Question 4: This book is very interesting to me. I am ______________________________________ Question 5: . I had no sooner closed the door than somebody knocked. Hardly had ______________________________________ B. : In about 100-120 words, write a paragraph about your family. 
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Đề thi thử đại học môn Tiếng Anh khối D, A1 năm 2014 (P7)

Đề thi thử đại học môn Tiếng Anh khối D, A1 năm 2014 (P7)

ĐỀ THI THỬ ĐẠI HỌC MÔN ANH KHỐI A1, D CÓ ĐÁP ÁN NĂM 2014 - THPT LƯƠNG ĐẮC BẰNG, THANH HÓA ĐỀ THI GỒM 80 CÂU (TỪ QUESTION 1 ĐẾN QUESTION 80). Mark the letter A, B, C or D on your answer sheet to indicate the word whose underlined part differs from the other three in pronunciation in each of the following questions.(from 1 to 2). Question 1: A. dissolved          B. blamed         C. misused           D. increased Question 2: A. amuses        B. purses               C. blouses             D. pleases Mark the letter A, B, C or D on your answer sheet to indicate the word that differs from the other three in the position of the main strees in each of the following questions..(from 3 to 5). Question 3: A. particular      B. environment      C. advertisement     D. circumstances Question 4: A. capture        B. picture      C. ensure         D. pleasure Question 5: A. museum     B. position        C. recommend       D. commitment Mark the letter A, B, C or D on your answer sheet to indicate the correct answer in each of the following questions..(from 6 to 30). Question 6: She should have been here but she’s................. .flu. A. gone through with                                        B. gone down with C. come in for                                                D. come against Question 7: Jane decided not to............... ..the exam in November. A. take on                     B. go in for             C. get round to       D. make for Question 8: Floods have completely............... ..the farmer’s crops. A. ruined                       B. damaged                C. harmed        D. injured Question 9: I gave the waiter a $50 notes and waited for my... A. change                          B. supply                   C. cash          D. cost Question 10: People can become very.................. ...when they are stuck in traffic for a long time. A. nervous            B. bad-tempered             C. stressful        D. pressed Question 11: If you had taken my advice, you.................. .in such difficulties now. A. wouldn’t have been      B. hadn’t been      C. wouldn’t be        D. won’t be Question 12: Susan wasn’t in when I arrived. I suppose she.................. ... I was coming. A. must have forgotten     B. must forget      C. may forget   D. can’t have forgotten Question 13: There is ................... . in my bedroom. A. a square wooden old table                  B. an old square wooden table C. a wooden old square table                  D. an old wooden square table Question 14: It’s essential that every student................. .the exam before attending the course. A. pass                B. passes               C. would pass              D. passed Question 15: We decided to go to the library as soon as we... A. finish what we did                           B. the same length   like D. the same long as C. finished what we did Question 16: Please cut my hair ... A. the same length  as B. would finish what we did C. the same long like D. finished what we were doing . the style in this magazine. Question 17: ................... .. in 1937, the Golden Gate Bridge spans the channel at the entrance to San Francisco Bay. A. Completed          B. Completing   C. Being completed     D.To be completed Question 18: The judge ...................... ... the murderer to a lifetime imprisonment. A. sentenced          B. convicted           C. accused                 D. prosecuted Question 19: “Never say that again, ..................... .. ?” A. won’t you                   B. will you                 C. do you             D. don’t you  Question 20: ................... .. he would be there, I would have agreed to come. A. Had I known         B. I had known          C. Had known I          D. If I knew Question  21:  That  the  committee  members  could  not  agree  with  each  other  about solving that problem............... caused a serious problem. A. is                         B. was                    C. has                 D. have Question 22: Nam has now......................... ... to the point where his English is almost fluent. A. arrived                B. approached           C. reached              D. advanced Question 23: I must take this watch to be repaired as it..................... .. over 20 minutes a day. A. accelerates           B. increases               C. progresses             D. gains Question 24: The stolen jewels were ...................... .. a lot of money. A. priced                    B. worth                     C. cost             D. valued Question 25: “Could I speak to Mai, please?” “ Yes, ............... ..”. A. answering             B. talking                   C. saying           D. speaking Question 26: “.................... .” - “Never mind, better luck next time.” A. I’ve broken your precious vase            B. I have a lot on my mind C. I couldn’t keep my mind on work         D. I didn’t get the vacant position Question 27: “Wow! What a nice coat you are wearing!” A. Certainly. Do you like it, too?               B. I like you to say that. C. Yes, of course. It’s expensive.              D. Thanks. My mother bought it for me. Question   28:  Peter:   “Do  you  think  that  we  should  use  public  transportation  to  protect our environment?” Mary: “................................. .” A. Of course not. You bet.                          B. Well, that’s very surprising. C. There is no doubt about it.                     D. Yes, it’s an absurd idea. Question 29: I was angry when you saw me because I...................... ..with my sister. A. have been arguing     B. had been arguing      C. argued     D. would argue Question 30:   ..................... ...the book, please return it to me . A. Should you find                                       B. Will you have found C. Will you be finding                                 D. Will you find Read the following passage and mark the letter A, B, C or D on your answer sheet to indicate the correct answer to each of the following questions. ( from 31 to 40). Speech is one of the most important (31).......... .. of communicating. It consists of far more thanjust making noises. To talk and also (32)............. .to by other people, we have to speak a language, that is, we have to use combinations of(33)............... .that everyone agrees to stand for a particular object or idea.  Communication  would  be  impossible  if  everyone  made  up  their  own  language.  Learning  alanguage properly is very (34)................. . The basic (35)............ ... of English is not very large, and not only about  2,000 words are needed to speak it quite (36)........................ . But the more idea you can(37)............ ...  the   more  precise   you  can  be  about  their   exact  meaning. Words  are  the (38)............... .thing we use in communicating what we want to say. The way we (39)........................ . thewords is also very important. Our tone of voice can express many emotions and (40)............ ... whether we are pleased or angry, for instance. Question 31: A. reasons         B. tests          C. ways                 D. rules Question 32: A. be spoken      B. be examined      C. be understood    D. be talked Question 33: A. systems       B. sounds            C. languages              D. talks Question 34: A. easy           B. important              C. simple               D. expensive Question 35: A. grammar          B. word            C. vocabulary           D. structure Question 36: A. fluent             B. good                 C. well                D. perfect Question 37: A. need         B. grow                C. express             D. pass Question 38: A. main        B. certain                   C. full                   D. most Question 39: A. talk             B. say               C. pass                    D. send Question 40: A. show           B. ask               C. understand            D. know  Read the following passage and mark the letter A, B, C or D on your answer sheet to indicate the correct answer to each of the following questions. ( from 41 to 50). During the nineteenth century, women in the United States organized and participated in a large number  of  reform  movements,  including  movements  to  reorganize  the  prison  system,  improve education, ban the sale of alcohol, grant rights to people who were denied them, and, most importantly, free slaves. Some women saw similarities in the social status of women and slaves. Woman like Elizabeth Cady Stanton and Lucy Stone were feminists and abolitionists who supported the rights of both  women  and  blacks.  A  number  of  male  abolitionists,  including  William Lloyd  Garrison  and Wendell Phillips, also supported the rights of women to speak and to participate equally with men in antislavery  activities.  Probably  more  than  any  other  movement,  abolitionism  offered  women  a previously denied entry into politics. They became involved primarily in order to better their living conditions and improve the conditions of others. When the civil war ended in 1865, the Fourteenth and Fifteenth Amendments to the Constitution adopted in 1868 and 1870 granted citizenship and suffrage to blacks but not to women. Discouraged but resolved, feminists worked tirelessly to influence more and more women to demand the right to vote. In 1869, the Wyoming Territory had yielded to demands by feminists, but the states on the East Coast resisted more stubbornly than before. A women’s suffrage bill had been presented to every Congress since 1878, but it continually failed to pass until 1920, when the Nineteenth Amendment granted women the right to vote. Question 41:   With what topic is the passage primarily concerned? A. The Wyoming Territory. B. The Fourteenth and Fifteenth Amendments. C. Abolitionists. D. Women’s suffrage. Question 42:   The word “ban” in line 3 most nearly means to ... A. encourage                    B. publish               C. prohibit                 D. limit Question 43:   The word “supported” in line 5 could best be replaced by... A. disregarded         B. acknowledged         C. contested              D. promote Question 44:   According to the passage, why did women become active in politics? A. To improve the conditions of life that existed at the time. B. To support Elizabeth Cady Stanton for president. C. To be elected to public office. D. To amend the Declaration of Independence. Question 45:   The word “primarily” in line 9 is closest in meaning to ... A. above all               B. somewhat                C. finally             D. always Question 46:   What had occurred shortly after the Civil War? A. The Wyoming Territory was admitted to the Union. B. A women’s suffrage bill was introduced in Congress. C. The eastern states resisted the end of the war. D. Black people were granted the right to vote. Question 47:   The word “suffrage” in line 12 could best be replaced by which of the following? A. pain                                                           B. citizenship C. freedom from bondage                           D. the right to vote Question 48:   What does the Nineteenth Amendment guarantee? A. Voting rights for blacks                         B. Citizenship for blacks C. Voting rights for women                        D. Citizenship for women. Question 49:   The word “it” in line 16 refers to... A. bill          B. Congress          C. Nineteenth Amendment             D. vote Question 50:   When were women allowed to vote throughout the United States? A. after 1866       B. after 1870             C. after 1878              D. after 1920 Read the following passage and mark the letter A, B, C or D on your answer sheet to indicate the correct answer to each of the following questions. ( from 51 to 60). Although they are an inexpensive supplier of vitamins, minerals, and high- quality protein, eggs  also contain a high level of blood cholesterol, one of the major causes of heart diseases. One egg yolk, in fact, contains a little more than two- thirds of the suggested daily cholesterol limit. This knowledge has driven egg sales to plummet in recent years, which in turn has brought about the development of several  alternatives  to  eating  regular  eggs.  One  alternative  is  to  eat  substitute  eggs.  These  eggs substitutes are not really eggs, but they look somewhat like eggs when they are cooked. They have the advantage of having low cholesterol rates, and they can be scrambled or used in banking. One disadvantage, however, is that they are not good for frying, poaching, or boiling. A second alternative to regular eggs is a new type of egg, sometimes called “designer” eggs. These eggs are produced by hens that are fed low- flat diets consisting of ingredients such as canola oil, flax, and rice bran. In spite of their diet, however, these hens produce eggs that contain the same amount of cholesterol as regular eggs. Yet, the producers of these eggs claim that eating their eggs will not raise the blood cholesterol in humans. Eggs producers claim that their product has been portrayed unfairly. They cite scientific studies to back up their claim. And, in fact, studies on the relationship between eggs and human cholesterol levels have brought mixed results. It may be that is not the type of eggs that is the main determinant of cholesterol but the person who is eating the eggs. Some people may be more sensitive to cholesterol derived from food than other people. In fact, there is evidence that certainly dietary fats stimulate the body’s production of blood cholesterol. Consequently, while it still makes sense to limit one’s intake of eggs, even designer eggs, it seems that doing this without regulating dietary fat will probably not help reduce the blood cholesterol level. Question 51: What is the main purpose of the passage? A. To introduce the idea that dietary at increases the blood cholesterol level. B. To make people know about the relationship between eggs and cholesterol. C. To persuade people that eggs are unhealthy and should not be eaten. D. To convince people to eat “designer” eggs and egg substitutes. Question 52: According to the passage, which of the following is a cause of heart diseases? A. Minerals            B. Cholesterol          C. Canola oil                D. Vitamins Question 53: What has been the cause for changes in the sale of eggs? A. Increasing price                                    B. Decreased production C. Dietary changes in hens                     D. Concerns about cholesterol Question 54: What is meant by the phrase “mixed results” ? A. The results are blended                      B. The results are a composite of things C. The results are inconclusive                 D. The results are mingled together Question 55: According to the author, which of the following may reduce blood cholesterol? A. Reducing egg intake but not fat intake      B. Increasing egg intake and fat intake C. Decreasing egg intake and fat intake   D. Increasing egg intake but not fat intake Question 56: Which of the following could best replace the word “somewhat”? A. in fact          B. a little              C. indefinitely                D. a lot Question  57: According  to  the  passage,  one  yolk  contains  approximately of    the suggested daily limit for human consumption of cholesterol? A. 3/4                      B. 2/3                            C. 1/2                D. 1/3 Question 58: The word “portrayed” could best be replaced by which of the following? A. studied                B. destroyed           C. tested     D. described Question 59: What is the meaning of “back up”? A. reverse                 B. advance              C. block             D. support Question 60: According to the passage, egg substitutes cannot be used to make any of the following types of eggs EXCEPT... A. boiled                    B. poached            C. scrambled           D. fried Mark the letter A, B, C or D on your answer sheet to indicate the underlined part that needs correction in each of the following questions..(from 61 to 65). Mark the letter A, B, C or D on your answer sheet to indicate the word(s) CLOSEST in meaning to the underlined word(s) in each of the following questions..(from 66 to 68). Question 66: The teacher gave some suggestions on what could come out for the examination. A. effects          B. symptoms           C. hints            D. demonstrations Question 67: Whenever problems come up, we discuss them frankly and find solutions quickly. A. clean                      B. encounter         C. arrive                  D. happen Question 68: Unselfishness is the very essence of friendship. A. important part    B. difficult part     C. romantic part        D. interesting part Mark the letter A, B, C or D on your answer sheet to indicate the word(s) OPPOSITE in meaning to the underlined word(s) in each of the following questions..(from 69 to 70). Question 69: During the five- decade history the Asian Games have been advancing in all aspects. A. holding at         B. holding back       C. holding to             D. holding by Question 70: The distinction between schooling and education implied by this remark is important. A. explicit          B. implicit                  C. obscure                 D. odd Mark the letter A, B, C or D on your answer sheet to indicate the sentence that is closest in meaning to the sentence given in each of the following questions..(from 71 to 80). Question 71: Peter ran into his former teacher on the way to the stadium yesterday. A. Peter caused an accident to his teacher while he was going to the stadium yesterday. B. Peter’s car ran over his teacher on the way to the stadium yesterday. C. Peter happened to meet his teacher while he was going to the stadium yesterday. D. Peter’s teacher got run over whole he was going to the stadium yesterday. Question 72: When the unemployment rate is high, the crime rate is usually also high. A. The unemployment rate and the crime rate are both higher. B. The higher the unemployment rate is, the higher the crime rate is. C. The unemployment rate is as high as the crime rate. D. The high rate of unemployment depends on the high rate of crime. Question 73: The cheap book is better designed than the expensive one. A. Though the first book is only slightly more expensive than the other, the later has a better designed. B. Both of the books have a good design, yet the less expensive one’s a bit better. C. The book which costs more does not have as good a design as that which costs less. D. While both books are well designed, the designed of one is better than that of the other.  Question 74: No sooner had he entered the house than the police arrested him. A. He had just entered the house when the police arrested him. B. Hardly that he had entered the house when the police arrested him. C. Immediately had he entered the house when the police arrested him. D. The police immediately arrested him as soon as he’s just entered the house. Question 75: Housewives do not have to spend a lot of time doing housework any more. A. Housework will never be done by any more. B. Housewives have to spend more and more time to do housework. C. Never have housewives spent as much time doing housework as they do now. D. No longer do housewives have to spend a lot of time doing housework. Question 76: Rather than disturb the meeting, I left without saying goodbye. A. I would rather disturb the meeting than leave without saying goodbye. B. I left without saying goodbye as I didn’t want to disturb the meeting. C. I disturbed the meeting because I said goodbye. D. The meeting was disturbed as I left saying goodbye. Question 77: Jane asked Ann if it was the blue one or the green she wanted. A. “Which one did you want, the blue or the green?”, asked Jane. B. “Which one does Ann want, the green or the blue?”, asked Jane. C. “Which one did she want, the blue or the green, Ann?”, asked Jane. D. “Which one do you want, the blue or the green, Ann?”, asked Jane. Question 78: “Report yourself to the police and you’ll get lighter penalty,” John told his brother. A. John asked his brother to give up himself to the police. B. John threatened his brother to report himself to the police. C. John promised his brother a report of himself to the police. D. John persuaded his brother to report himself to the police. Question 79: You must clean the wall before you paint it. A. The wall must be cleaned before you paint. B. The wall must be clean before you paint it. C. The wall must clean before you paint it. D. The wall must be cleaned before being painted. Question 80: Companies spend millions of dollars on advertising. They want to increase their sales. A. Companies spend millions of dollars on advertising so that they want to increase their sales. B. Companies spend millions of dollars on advertising, but they want to increase their sales. C. Companies spend millions of dollars on advertising with the aim of   increasing their sales. D. In order that they want to increase their sales, companies spend millions of dollars on advertising. ĐÁP ÁN ĐỀ THI THỬ ĐẠI HỌC MÔN ANH KHỐI A1, D  NĂM 2014 - THPT LƯƠNG ĐẮC BẰNG, THANH HÓA  1D 2B 3D 4C 5C 6B 7B 8A 9A 10B 11C 12A 13B 14A 15D 16A 17A 18A 19B 20A 21C 22D 23D 24B 25D 26D 27D 28C 29B 30A 31C 32C 33B 34B 35C 36C 37C 38A 39B 40A 41D 42C 43D 44A 45A 46D 47D 48C 49A 50D 51B 52B 53D 54C 55C 56B 57B 58D 59D 60C 61A 62A 63A 64B 65C 66C 67D 68A 69B 70A 71C 72B 73C 74C 75D 76B 77D 78D 79D 80C Tuyensinh247 sẽ tiếp tục cấp nhật các phần tiếp theo của Đề thi thử đại học môn Anh khối A1, D năm 2014 các em chú ye theo dõi nhé!  
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DOES HUMAN HARMED THE EARTH OR MAKE IT A BETTER PLACE TO LIVE

DOES HUMAN HARMED THE EARTH OR MAKE IT A BETTER PLACE TO LIVE

Does human harmed the Earth or make it a better place to live?People have been living on the Earth for thousands of years. Humanactivity influences the Earth. Some people believe that the Earth isbeing harmed by human activity. Others feel that human activitymakes the Earth a better place to live. In my opinion, the earth isbeing damaged by human activity. There are many statementssupporting my opinion.Human activity has damaged natural environment and almostexhausted natural resources. Modern industries need more andmore resources, including minerals, fuelsand water. So we are facing the serious problems such as the lackof fuels and water. Ecological balance is being damaged becausefactories occupy many places where animals and plants live. Moreand more buildings are constructed and forests are becoming lessand less. If we cannot recognize these problems and solve themsoon, we would finally lose the environment suitable for us to livein.Another serious problem is "the greenhouse effect." Humanactivities decrease forests and increase the usage of fuels so thatcarbon dioxide is being output more and more and there are notenough plants to absorb it. The greenhouse effect is more obviousin recent years. Due to the effect, icebergs in the South and NorthPole is melting and the ocean level becomes higher than before. Iam worried about the cities nearby the oceans and hope scientistscan find an effective method to eliminate the greenhouse effect.Although we have advanced machines and our life seems to bemore comfortable than before, we have less chances to approachthe nature and limited space to live in. The cities are becomingbigger and bigger. If we want to have a picnic with our friends, wehave to drive a long distance to find an open space. In fact, theskyscrapers and factories are damaging the spaces for human
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TIẾNG ANH CHUYÊN NGHÀNH DÀNH CHO SINH VIÊN NÔNG HỌC

TIẾNG ANH CHUYÊN NGHÀNH DÀNH CHO SINH VIÊN NÔNG HỌC

1.* Question a: What is the root system and its functions?- Root system is a basic part of plant. It is below the ground.- Root system has 2 functions. Firstly it takes in water and mineral from the soil. secondy, it holds theplant in the soil.* Question b: What are root hairs?- The root hairs are single cells near the tip of root.* Question c: What do sugar beets, carrots and leguminous plants have in their roots ?- Sugar beets and carrots have food in their roots.- Legunies have spesial bacteria on their roots.2.* Question a: What is the shoot system?- Shoot system is a basic part of a plant. lt is above the ground.* Question b: What are the functions of the stem, the leaves, flowers and fruit?- Shoot system has 4 parts: stem, leaves, flowers, and fruit- Stem: has 2 functions. Firstly, it supports the plant. Secondly, it helps water and mineral to movefrom the root to leaves and flowers.- Leaves: make food for the plant through photosynthesis.- Flower has reproductive organs of the plant.- Fruit has the seeds and protects them while they are developing.3.* Question a: What is germination?- Germination is the first stage of the life cycle of a plant.* Question b: What are the necessary conditions for germinations ?- There are 4 conditions right.+ Firstly, the seeds must be alive.+ Secondly, the temperature must be right. If the temperature is too high, the seeds will die becausewater conten is reduced and some proteins are destroyed.+ Thirdly, the moisture must be right. If the soil is too dry, the seeds will not germinate until it rains.
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Đề thi thử THPT Quốc gia môn Anh năm 2015 - Đề số 7

Đề thi thử THPT Quốc gia môn Anh năm 2015 - Đề số 7

Đáp án & Đề thi thử THPT Quốc gia môn Anh năm 2015 - Đề số 7 Mark the letter A, B, C or D on your answer sheet to indicate the sentence that is closest in meaning to each of the following questions. Question 1: She was the first woman in the Philippines. She was elected as the president of the country. A. She was the first woman to be elected as the president of the Philippines. B. She was the first woman who is elected as the president of the Philippines. C. She was the first woman being elected as the president of the Philippines. D. She was the first woman elected as the president of the Philippines. Mark the letter A, B, C or D on your answer sheet to indicate the correct answer to each of the following questions. Question 2: I’ve _____ what the problem is with the exam. A. got on                      B. found out                             C. looked up                D. put up Question 3: Mark the letter A, B, C or D on your answer sheet to indicate the word that differs from the rest in the position of the main stress in each of the following questions. A. eliminate                 B. accelerate                            C. renovation               D. stability Question 4: I can’t hear. Please _____. A. tear up                     B. eat up                                  C. count up                  D. speak up Question 5: Mark the letter A, B, C or D on your answer sheet to indicate the antonym of the underlined word in the following question.  “Our victory in this Olympic Games was hard won.” A. softly                      B. actively                               C. lightly                      D. weakly Question 6: Founded in 1967 in Bangkok, _____. A. the ASEAN success in promoting peace and stability gained B. the peace and stability in the region has been successfully promoted by the ASEAN C. the ASEAN’s promotion of peace and stability has been successful D. the ASEAN has successfully promoted peace and stability in the region Read the following passage and mark the letter A, B, C, or D on your answer sheet to indicate the correct answer for each of the questions from 7 to 16 Canadian English is a regional variety of North American English that spans almost the entire continent. Canadian English became a separate variety of North American English after the American Revolution, when thousands of Loyalists, people who had supported the British, left the United States and fled north to Canada. Many Loyalists settled in southern Ontario in the 1780s, and their speech became the basis for what is called General Canadian, a definition based on the norms of urban middle-class speech. Modern Canadian English is usually defined by the ways in which it resembles and differs from American or British English. Canadian English has a great deal in common with the English spoken in the United States, yet many Americans identify a Canadian accent as British. Many American visitors to Canada think the Canadian vocabulary sounds British – for example, they notice the British “tap” and “braces” instead of the American “faucet” and “suspenders”. On the other hand, many British people identify a Canadian accent as American, and British visitors think the Canadians have become Americanized, saying “gas” and “truck” for “petrol” and “lorry”. People who live outside North America often find it difficult to hear the differences between Canadian and American English. There are many similarities between the two varieties, yet they are far from identical. Canadian English is instantly recognizable to other Canadians, and one Canadian in a crowded room will easily spot the other Canadian among the North Americans. There is no distinctive Canadian grammar. The differences are mainly in pronunciation, vocabulary, and idioms. Canadian pronunciation reflects the experience of a people struggling for national identity against two strong influences. About 75 per cent of Canadians use the English “zed” rather than the American “zee” for the name of the last letter of the alphabet. On the other hand, 75 per cent of Canadians use the American pronunciation of “schedule”, “tomato”, and “missile”. The most obvious and distinctive feature of Canadian speech is probably its vowel sound, the diphthong “/ou/”. In Canada, “out” is pronounced like “oat” in nearby U.S. accents. There are other identifying features of Canadian vowels: for example, “cot” is pronounced the same as “caught” and “collar” the same as “caller”. An important characteristic of the vocabulary of Canadian English is the use of many words and phrases originating in Canada itself, such as “kerosene” and “chesterfield” (“sofa”). Several words are borrowed from North American Indian languages, for example, “kayak”, “caribou”, “parka”, and “skookum” (“strong”). The name of the country itself has an Indian origin; the Iroquois word “kanata” originally meant “village”. A number of terms for ice hockey – “face-off”, “blue-line”, and “puck” – have become part of World Standard English. Some features of Canadian English seem to be unique and are often deliberately identified with Canadian speakers in such contexts as dramatic and literary characterizations. Among the original Canadian idioms, perhaps the most famous is the almost universal use of “eh?” as a tag question, as in “That’s a good movie, eh?” “Eh” is also used as a filler during a narrative, as in “I’m walking home from work, eh, and I’m thinking about dinner. I finally get home, eh, and the refrigerator is empty.” The traditional view holds that there are no dialects in Canadian English and that Canadians cannot tell where other Canadians are from just by listening to them. The linguists of today disagree with this view. While there is a greater degree of homogeneity in Canadian English compared with American English, several dialect areas do exist across Canada. Linguists have identified distinct dialects for the Maritime Provinces, Newfoundland, the Ottawa Valley, southern Ontario, the Prairie Provinces, the Arctic North, and the West. Question 7:  According to the passage, how did Canadian English become a distinct variety of North American English? A. Canadians declared their language to be different from U.S. English. B. Growth of the middle class led to a standard school curriculum. C. A large group of Loyalists settled in one region at the same time. D. Linguists noticed that Canadians spoke a unique dialect. Question 8:  The word “norms” in paragraph 1 is closest in meaning to “_____”. A. words             B. history                 C. ideas                  D. patterns Question 9:  The phrase “a great deal in common with” in paragraph 2 is closest in meaning to “_____”. A. the same problems as             B. easier pronunciation than C. many similarities to D. different words for Question 10:  In paragraph 2, what point does the author make about Canadian English? A. American and British visitors define Canadian English by their own norms. B. Canadians speak English with an accent that Americans cannot understand. C. Canadian English is more similar to American than to British English. D. Canadian English has many words that are not in other varieties of English. Question 11:  The phrase “the two varieties” in paragraph 3 refers to _____. A. Canadian English and American English    B. general Canadian and North American C. British English and Canadian English                      D. people who live outside North American Question 12:  The word “spot” in paragraph 3 is closest in meaning to _____. A. prefer                      B. find                        C. describe                   D. ignore Question 13:  Which sentence below best expresses the essential information in the underlined sentence in paragraph 4? A. Canadian English has been strongly influenced by both British and American English. B. Canadians have tried to distinguished themselves as a nation, and this effort is shown in their pronunciation. C. Canada is the only nation where people can deliberately choose which pronunciation they prefer. D. Many newcomers to Canada must work hard to master the national style of pronouncing English. Question 14:  All of the following words originated in North American Indian languages EXCEPT _____. A. parka                  B. kerosene          C. Canada                    D. kayak Question 15:  Which of the following can be inferred from paragraph 5 about vocabulary? A. Much of the vocabulary for ice hockey originated in Canada. B. Vocabulary is the most distinctive feature of Canadian English. C. Canadians use more North American Indian words than Americans do. D. World Standard English has a very large vocabulary. Question 16:  The author discusses the expression “eh” in paragraph 6 as an example of _____. A. an expression that few people outside Canada have heard B. a style of Canadian drama and literature    C. a word that cannot be translated into other languages       D. an idiom that uniquely characterizes Canadian speech Question 17: What _____ today if you hadn’t come here last weekend? A. will you be doing    B. would you be doing             C. were you doing       D. could you do Question 18: _____ I am aware, there were no problems during the first six months. A. As far as                  B. So much as                          C. Much more than      D. Except that Read the following passage and mark the letter A, B, C, or D on your answer sheet to indicate the correct answer for each of the blanks from19 to 28. Every culture has its own (19)___ list of behavior that is acceptable. Every society (20)___ has its taboos, or types of behavior that are considered a violation of (21)___ manners. If you travel to (22)___ country, on business or vacation, it is really (23)____ to learn some of that country’s customs so that you (24)___ insult the local people there. The word “taboo” comes from the Tongan language and is used in (25)___ English to describe verbal and non-verbal behavior that is forbidden or to be (26) ___. In spite of people’s common thought, taboos are not universal and they tend to be (27)___ to a certain culture or country, and usually form around a community’s values and beliefs. (28)___, what is considered acceptable behavior in one country may be a serious taboo in another. Question 19: A. written                B. spoken                    C. unwritten                 D. unspoken Question 20: A. already               B. although               C. always                     D. also Question 21: A. wonderful      B. excellent                  C. good                                    D. terrific Question 22: A. another          B. other                      C. one another             D. the other Question 23: A. grateful                      B. doubtful                  C. thankful                  D. helpful Question 24: A. can’t               B. mustn’t                    C. needn’t                    D. don’t Question 25: A. ancient                       B. classical                   C. modern                    D. instant Question 26: A. received         B. performed               C. avoided                   D. completed Question 27: A. specific                       B. specialized              C. specified                 D. special Question 28: A. However        B. Therefore                 C. Together                  D. Then Question 29: Mark the letter A, B, C or D on your answer sheet to indicate the word whose underlined part is pronounced differently from that of the rest in each of the following questions. A. tension                    B. erosion                    C. procession               D. depression Question 30: We’re trying to _____ a holiday together. A. fix with                   B. fix up                       C. fix on                      D. fix for Question 31: Ann said, “My dear friend, it’s time you _____ better for the test.” A. have prepared         B. to prepare                C. prepared                 D. are preparing Question 32: Mark the letter A, B, C or D on your answer sheet to indicate the correct answer to each of the following questions.    There should be an international law against _____. A. reforestation               B. afforestation            C. forestry                   D. deforestation Question 33: I think giving a presentation in front of the class is _____. A. slow                                    B. stupid                      C. famous                    D. scary Question 34: The secretary will get the forms _____ tomorrow. A. sign                         B. to be signed             C. signing                     D. signed Question 35: The ending of the movie was so sad that many people _____ into tears. A. caught                     B. burst                                    C. got                           D. made Question 36: - “Can you make it at 3 p.m. on Friday for our meeting?” - “_____” A. Ok, that’s fine.                     B. You have a point there, but I don’t think so. C. Very well, thanks.               D. That’s not true. I met him three days ago. Question 37: Mark the letter A, B, C or D on your answer sheet to show the underlined part that needs correction. A.  Bad polluted air can          B.  cause illness and    C.  even death to          D.  many people. Question 38: They are optimistic that negotiations will be settled _____. A. within the hour                    B. recently                   C. seldom                    D. never Read the following passage and mark the letter A, B, C, or D on your answer sheet to indicate the correct answer for each of the questions from 39 to 48 Increasing numbers of parents in the U.S. are choosing to teach their children at home. In fact, the U.S. Department of Education has estimated that in 1999, about 850,000 children were being homeschooled. Some educational experts say that the real number is double this estimate, and the ranks of homeschooled children seem to be growing at the average rate of about eleven percent every year. At one time, there was a theory accounting for homeschooling: it was traditionally used for students who could not attend school because of behavioral or learning difficulties. Today, however, more parents are taking on the responsibility of educating their own children at home due to their dissatisfaction with the educational system. Many parents are unhappy about class size, as well as problems inside the classroom. Teacher shortages and lack of funding mean that, in many schools, one teacher is responsible for thirty or forty students. The children are, therefore, deprived of the attention they need. Escalating classroom violence has also motivated some parents to remove their children from school. Although there have been a lot of arguments for and against it, homeschooling in the U.S. has become a multi-million dollar industry, and it is growing bigger and bigger. There are now plenty of websites, support groups, and conventions that help parents protect their rights and enable them to learn more about educating their children. Though once it was the only choice for troubled children, homeschooling today is an accepted alternative to an educational system that many believe is failing. Question 39:  The number of parents who want to teach their own children in the U.S. is _____. A. remaining unchanged          B. remaining the same             C. going up      D. going down Question 40:  The past participle “homeschooled” in the first paragraph is best equivalent to “_____at home”. A. taught                                  B. self-learned                         C. untaught      D. self-studied Question 41:  This estimated number was presented by _____. A. a governmental office          B. school teachers        C. the parents   D. homeschooled children Question 42:  According to some experts, the exact number of homeschooled children then must be _____. A. 1,600,000                 B. 850,000                  C. 1,900,000    D. 1,700,000 Question 43:  The closest synonym of the participle phrase “accounting for” in the second paragraph is “_____”. A. explaining                           B. reasoning                 C. counting for    D. calculating documents of Question 44:  More parents teach their children because they completely _____ the current educational system. A. please with                          B. object to                  C. appeal to                 D. approve of Question 45:  The noun “dissatisfaction” in this paragraph is best equivalent to “_____”. A. disappointment            B. disagreement                       C. discrimination         D. discouragement Question 46:  Many parents stop their children from going to school because it is now too _____ for them. A. explosive                            B. expensive                C. dangerous          D. humorous Question 47:  The word “arguments” at the beginning of the third paragraph can be best replaced by “_____”. A. rows              B. quarrels               C. viewpoints               D. discussions Question 48:  The attitude of the author towards homeschooling can be best described as _____. A. acceptable                           B. favorable                 C. remarkable              D. unfavorable Question 49: The pension plans cover only domestic employees; _____, international employees must make other arrangements.     A. even though                        B .moreover                 C. consequently        D. in addition Question 50: The cook insisted that he _____ the soup. A. taste                                     B. tasting                      C. to taste                     D. tastes Question 51: - “Is that Anne Pond?” – “_____” A. I don’t think so.                  B. Yes, it is.                 C. I guess so.               D. Yes, speaking. Question 52: Look! All the lights in his room are off. He _____ right now. A. may be sleeping      B. must be sleeping      C. must have been sleeping     D. might be sleeping Question 53: The thief had only just picked up the jewels when the policemen came into the room and grabbed him. A. No sooner the thief had picked up the jewels rather than the policemen came into the room and grabbed him. B. No sooner had the thief picked up the jewels than the policemen came into the room and grabbed him. C. Sooner the thief hadn’t picked up the jewels rather than the policemen came into the room and grabbed him. D. Sooner had the thief not picked up the jewels than the policemen came into the room and grabbed him. Question 54: _____ the young still have to learn is the value of our tradition. A. That                                     B. This                         C. What                        D. It Question 55: - “Let me bring something to your party tonight, won’t you?” – “_____” A. Sorry I’ve already had plan for tonight.      B. In my opinion, you are correct. C. That really surprises me.                             D. It’s enough just to have you come. Question 56: Mother’s love for her children could never die _____ she’s alive. A. as deep as                           B. as if                         C. as for                       D. as long as Question 57: The security of the earth will be threatened by terrorism, _____ terrorist groups will become more powerful and more dangerous.            A. moreover    B. so that                     C. as                            D. so Question 58: Mark the letter A, B, C or D on your answer sheet to show the underlined part that needs correction.Computers (A)  are often used to control, (B)  adjustment, and (C)  correct complex (D)  industrial operations. Question 59: Mark the letter A, B, C or D on your answer sheet to indicate the synonym of the underlined words in each of the following questions.       ”She always expresses her deep sympathy towards homeless children.” A. broad                      B. profound             C. inside                   D. kind Question 60: - “As I see it, women often drive more carefully than men.” - “___! More traffic accidents are caused by men.”          A. Yes, please.                         B. What nonsense        C. Never mind             D. Absolutely Question 61: John didn’t install an alarm, so the thieves broke into his house last night. A. If he installed an alarm, the thieves didn’t break into his house last night. B. If he had installed an alarm, the thieves wouldn’t break into his house last night. C. Had he installed an alarm, the thieves wouldn’t have broken into his house last night. D. Because he hadn’t installed an alarm, the thieves would break into his house last night. Question 62: The kids made a complete _____ and then had to clean it up. A. difference                        B. secret                       C. temper                     D. mess Question 63: Mark the letter A, B, C or D on your answer sheet to indicate the word whose underlined part is pronounced differently from that of the rest in each of the following questions. A. remote                     B. pose                   C. toddle                 D. postcard Question 64: That was a long day. I’m completely _____. A. far and wide                            B. hit the hay            C. dog-tired           D. slept like a log Question 65: Mark the letter A, B, C or D on your answer sheet to show the underlined part that needs correction. A number of (A)  many wildlife habitat reserves (B)  have been established so that a wide range of endangered species can have a chance (C) to survive and (D)  develop. Question 66: Mark the letter A, B, C or D on your answer sheet to show the underlined part that needs correction.  (A)  Entered the room, he (B)  discovered that he (C) had lost his wallet while (D)  shopping in the city center. Question 67: Mark the letter A, B, C or D on your answer sheet to show the underlined part that needs correction. (A)  Thanks to the (B)  timely laws, some elephant populations, especially (C) that in southern Africa, (D)  have recovered over the last decade. Question 68: Mark the letter A, B, C or D on your answer sheet to indicate the word whose underlined part is pronounced differently from that of the rest in each of the following questions. A. missed                                 B. stopped                   C. naked                      D. looked Question 69: Mark the letter A, B, C or D on your answer sheet to indicate the word that differs from the rest in the position of the main stress in each of the following questions. A. minority                              B. optimistic                 C. accompany              D. eradicate Question 70: Mark the letter A, B, C or D on your answer sheet to indicate the correct answer to each of the following questions. _____ controlled most positions of employment and power in society. A. It were men who                 B. It was men who        C. Men who                 D. Men were Question 71: After the games, a special medal was _____ all combatants. A. earned                                 B. gained                     C deserved                   D. awarded Question 72: - “I thought your baseball game was a lot better, Phil.” – “_____” A. Thank you. I’d love to.                               B. Yes, please. Just a little. C. No, thanks. I think I can do it.                     D. You’ve got to be kidding. I thought it was bad. Question 73: _____, the Americans are more concerned with physical attractiveness. A. The choice of a wife or a husband              B. When choosing a wife or a husband C. However a wife or a husband chooses                    D. Because of a wife or a husband Question 74: John was the youngest boy ___. A. that was joined the club      B. to be admitted to the club C. admitted to the club                         D. joining the club Question 75: Mark the letter A, B, C or D on your answer sheet to indicate the sentence that is closest in meaning to each of the following questions. The applicants will get more chances to be invited to an interview if their résumés look impressive enough to employers. A. The applicants whose résumés look impressive enough to employers will get more chances to be invited to an interview. B. Unless the applicants’ résumés look impressive enough to employers, they will get more chances to be invited to an interview. C. The applicants getting more chances to be invited to an interview look for their impressive résumés for employers. D. The applicants will get their impressive résumés as soon as they are invited to an interview by employers. Question 76: “You damaged my bicycle, John.” said Margaret. A. Margaret forbade John to damage her bicycle.                B. Margaret persuaded John to damage her bicycle. C. John regretted damaging Margaret’s bicycle.                 D. Margaret accused John of damaging her bicycle. Question 77: Mark the letter A, B, C or D on your answer sheet to indicate the synonym of the underlined words in each of the following questions.      He hid the gun in his pocket. A. put                          B. hit                              C. concealed                    D. covered Question 78: Now that my summer vacation has just begun, I feel free as _____. A. a bird                      B. a cucumber                   C. a pie                                D. a pig Question 79: Despite all my anxiety, I _____ for the job I wanted. A. was hiring               B. got hired                     C. hired                      D. got hiring Question 80: - “Must I start right now?” – “No. I believe you _____.” A. don’t have to            B. needn’t have to              C. can’t have to                D. mustn’t ------THE END-------   Tuyensinh247.com tiếp tục cập nhật đề thi thử THPT Quốc gia năm 2015 của các trường. Các em thường xuyên theo dõi. Nguồn: ST
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I Choose the word whose underlined part is pronounced differently from the others. (0,2) 1. A. think B. therefore C. throughout D. thanks 2. A. cleaned B. played C. used D. hoped 3. A. stood B. blood C. good D. foot 4. A. nation B. natural C. matter D. anger 5. A. books B. clubs C. hats D. stamps II Choose the best answer from the four options given (A, B, C, or D) to complete each sentence. (0,2) 6. Helen: “Where do you come from?” ~ Ann “________.” A. I come from London B. In London C. Yes, I’ve just come here D. I’m living in London 7. He ________in the cafe when she came. A. sat B. has sat C. has been sitting D. was sitting 8. Mr. Dung will be leaving ________Son La on Sunday. A. in B. at C. from D. for 9. “Pass me that pen, please” ~ “________”. A. Here you are B. No, it isn’t C. Yes, please D. It doesn’t matter 10. Where is Huong? ~ She’s out. She said she ________back soon. A. is B. was C. came D. would be 11. Thang has applied for a ________in a new company. A. career B. work C. job D. task 12. ________you let me take a photograph of you? A. Will B. Shall C. May D. Must 13. All of us were ________that he came first. He hasn’t been working hard so far. A. surprising B. to surprise C. surprised D. to be surprised 14. I telephoned the station to make ________of the time of the train. A. sure B. true C. real D. right 15. My brother loves ________to music very much. A. to be listened B. listening C. to listen D. listened 16. He ________his grandparents every Sunday. A. has visited B. visits C. is visiting D. was visiting 17. The policeman explained to us ________to get to the airport. A. how B. how can we C. how can D. how we can 18. Several people were hurt in the accident but only one ________to hospital. A. was taken B. was taking C. has taken D. has been taking 19. He ________in London at the moment. A. studies B. is studying C. has studied D. will study 20. The college got some money by selling one of its ________old pictures. A. useful B. usual C. valuable D. helpful III Identify the underlined word phrase (A or B,C,D) that needs correcting to become an exact one. (0,2) 21. Hurry up She’s cut herself. It bleeds quite badly. A B C D 22. The printed paper will get out from the output path on a minute. A B C D 23. My computer doesn’t work. I think that it is broke. A B C D 24. Everybody I know like to eat chocolates and icecream. A B C D 25. The teacher is telling the pupils what to use the new equipment. A B C D IV Read the following passage, then choose the correct answer to questions 26 30. (0,2) Solar energy is a long lasting source of energy, and it can (26)________almost anywhere. To generate solar energy, we only need solar cells and (27)________ Solar cells can easily be installed on house (28)________, so we don’t need any new space. Compared to other renewable sources, they also possess many advantages: wind and water power rely on turbines which (29)________noisy, expensive and which take up large space. Solar cells are totally silent and (30)________. As they have no moving parts, they require little maintenance and have a long lifetime. 26. A. be used B. is used C. be using D. to be used 27. A. the earth B. the planet C. the sun D. the moon 28. A. yards B. roofs C. gardens D. doors 29. A. is B. be C. are D. was 30. A. polluted B. polluting C. nonpolluted D. nonpolluting V Read the following passage, then choose the correct answer to questions 31 35. (0,4) Devastating floods along the coast have left many people homeless. People are asked to help by donating food, clothes, furniture, and other supplies to the Assistance Fund. Donations of bottled water are especially needed, since the floods have disrupted the local water supply. In addition, volunteers are needed to travel to the flooded area to help distribute the donations. 31. What does this notice concern? A. Help for flood victims B. Safety precaution C. Dangerous roads D. Warning about weather 32. What kind of supplies is NOT mentioned? A. Furniture B. Clothing C Food. D. Medicine 33. In addition to supplies, what is needed? A. Volunteers B. New bridges C. Places to stay D. Teacher 34. “devastating floods” in line 1 refer to those that_________. A. happen suddenly B. are very short C. last for a long time D. cause a lot of damage 35. The word “donating” in line 2 is closest in meaning to_________. A. selling B. buying C. giving D. taking VI Complete the second sentence so that it has a similar meaning to the first one. (0,4) 36. I couldn’t sleep. I was tired. Although_________________________________. 37. The planet is Venus. The planet is closest to the Earth. The planet which___________________________________________________________________. 38. They have just sent an ambulance to the school. An ambulance_____________________________________________________________________. 39. “There are flights from Nha Trang to Ha Noi twice a week” they said to me. They told me______________________________________________________________________. 40. “Don’t interrupt me while I am speaking.” Nam said to Hoa. Nam told Hoa not__________________________________________________________________. KEY I Choose the word whose underlined part is pronounced differently from the others. (0,2) 1. A. think B. therefore C. throughout D. thanks 2. A. cleaned B. played C. used D. hoped 3. A. stood B. blood C. good D. foot 4. A. nation B. natural C. matter D. anger 5. A. books B. clubs C. hats D. stamps II Choose the best answer from the four options given (A, B, C, or D) to complete each sentence. (0,2) 6. Helen: “Where do you come from?” ~ Ann “________.” A. I come from London B. In London C. Yes,I’ve just come here D. I’m living in London 7. He________in the cafe when she came. A. sat B. has sat C. has been sitting D. was sitting 8. Mr. Dung will be leaving________Son La on Sunday. A. in B. at C. from D. for 9. “Pass me that pen, please” ~ “________”. A. Here you are B. No, it isn’t C. Yes, please D. It doesn’t matter 10. Where is Huong? ~ She’s out. She said she________back soon. A. is B. was C. came D. would be 11. Thang has applied for a________in a new company. A. career B. work C. job D. task 12. ________you let me take a photograph of you? A. Will B. Shall C. May D. Must 13. All of us were________that he came first. He hasn’t been working hard so far. A. surprising B. to surprise C. surprised D. to be surprised 14. I telephoned the station to make________of the time of the train. A. sure B. true C. real D. right 15. My brother loves________to music very much. A. to be listened B. listening C. to listen D. listened 16. He________his grandparents every Sunday. A. has visited B. visits C. is visiting D. was visiting 17. The policeman explained to us________to get to the airport. A. how B. how can we C. how can D. how we can 18. Several people were hurt in the accident but only one________to hospital. A. was taken B. was taking C. has taken D. has been taking 19. He________in London at the moment. A. studies B. is studying C. has studied D. will study 20. The college got some money by selling one of its________old pictures. A. useful B. usual C. valuable D. helpful III Identify the underlined word phrase (A or B,C,D) that needs correcting to become an exact one. (0,2) 21. Hurry up She’s cut herself. It bleeds quite badly. A B C D 22. The printed paper will get out from the output path on a minute. A B C D 23. My computer doesn’t work. I think that it is broke. A B C D 24. Everybody I know like to eat chocolates and icecream. A B C D 25. The teacher is telling the pupils what to use the new equipment. A B C D IV Read the following passage, then choose the correct answer to questions 26 30. (0,2) Solar energy is a long lasting source of energy, and it can (26)________almost anywhere. To generate solar energy, we only need solar cells and (27)________ Solar cells can easily be installed on house (28)________, so we don’t need any new space. Compared to other renewable sources, they also possess many advantages: wind and water power rely on turbines which (29)________noisy, expensive and which take up large space. Solar cells are totally silent and (30)________. As they have no moving parts, they require little maintenance and have a long lifetime. 26. A. be used B. is used C. be using D. to be used 27. A. the earth B. the planet C. the sun D. the moon 28. A. yards B. roofs C. gardens D. doors 29. A. is B. be C. are D. was 30. A. polluted B. polluting C. nonpolluted D. nonpolluting V Read the following passage, then choose the correct answer to questions 31 35. (0,4) Devastating floods along the coast have left many people homeless. People are asked to help by donating food, clothes, furniture, and other supplies to the Assistance Fund. Donations of bottled water are especially needed, since the floods have disrupted the local water supply. In addition, volunteers are needed to travel to the flooded area to help distribute the donations. 31. What does this notice concern? A. Help for flood victims B. Safety precaution C. Dangerous roads D. Warning about weather 32. What kind of supplies is NOT mentioned? A. Furniture B. Clothing C Food. D. Medicine 33. In addition to supplies, what is needed? A. Volunteers B. New bridges C. Places to stay D. Teacher 34. “Devastating floods” in line 1 refer to those that_________. A. happen suddenly B. are very short C. last for a long time D. cause a lot of damage 35. The word “donating” in line 2 is closest in meaning to_________. A. selling B. buying C. giving D. taking VI Complete the second sentence so that it has a similar meaning to the first one. (0,4) 36. I couldn’t sleep. I was tired. Although I was tired, I couldn’t sleep. 37. The planet is Venus. The planet is closest to the Earth. The planet which is closet to the earth is Venus. 38. They have just sent an ambulance to the school. An ambulance has just been sent to the school. 39. “There are flights from Nha Trang to Ha Noi twice a week” they said to me. They told me that there were flights from Nha Trang to Ha Noi twice a week. 40. “Don’t interrupt me while I am speaking.” Nam said to Hoa. Nam told Hoa not to interrupt him while he was speaking. ĐỀ THI THỬ ĐẠI HỌC NĂM 2013 Môn : TIẾNG ANH; Khối: D Họ và tên thí sinh: …………………………………………. Số báo danh: ………………………………………………..Thời gian làm bài: 90 phút. Không kể thời gian phát đề ĐỀ THI GỒM 80 CÂU; TỪ QUESTION 1 ĐẾN QUESTION 80 Mark the letter A, B, C or D on your answer sheet to indicate the correct answer that best completes each unfinished sentence, substitutes the underlined part, or has a close meaning to the original one Question 1: ……….. be needed, the water basin would need to be dammed. A. Hydroelectric power should C. Hydroelectric power B. When hydroelectric power D. Should hydroelectric power Question 2: The replacement of shops such as the groceries’ and chemist’s by cafes………….. the housewives with insufficient facilities for shopping. A. leave B. have left C. has left D. to have left Question 3: Deborah is going to take extra lessons to………. what she missed while she was away. A. catch up on B. cut down on C. put up with D. take up with Question 4: Jane: Thank you for a lovely evening. Barbara: ……………………………… A. You are welcome B. Have a good day C. Thanks D. Cheer Question 5: I have English classes …………day on Mondays, Wednesdays and Fridays. A. all other B. each other C. every other D. this and the other Question 6: She was ………………she could not say anything. A. so surprised at the news that C. so surprised of the news that B. such surprised at the news that D. so that surprised for the news Question 7: There is a huge amount of ………associated with children’s TV shows nowadays. A. produce B. manufacturing C. merchandising D. sales Question 8: British and Australian people share the same language, but in other respects they are as different as ……….. A. cats and dogs B. chalk and cheese C. salt and pepper D. here and there Question 9: It’s essential that every student …………the exam before attending the course. A. pass B. passes C. would pass D. passed Question 10: I decided to go to the library as soon as I……………. A. finish what I did C. finished what I did B. would finish what I did D. finished what I was doing Question 11: ………………..in the street yesterday was very friendly. A. The mounted police, who I saw C. Who is the mounted police I saw B. The mounted police I saw whom D. The mounted police whom I saw Question 12: A washing machine of this type will certainly………….normal domestic use. A. stand up for B. come up with C. get on to D. take down with Question 13: “Please speak up a bit more, Jason. You’re hardly loud enough to be heard from the back”, the teacher said. A. visible B. audible C. edible D. eligible Question 14: Ancient Egyptians mummified their dead through the use of chemicals, …………. ancient Peruvians did through natural processes. A. because B. whereas C. even though D. whether or not Question 15: It is very difficult to…………the exact meaning of an idiom in a foreign language. A. convert B. convey C. exchange D. transfer Question 16: Issues from price, place, promotion, and product are………….of marketing strategies planning, despite growing calls to expand the range of issues in today’s more complex world. A. these that are among the most conventional concerns B. among the most conventional concerns C. they are among the most conventional concerns D. those are among the most conventional concerns Question 17: Please cut my hair …………….the style in this magazine. A. the same length as B. the same length like C. the same long like D. the same long as Question 18: Carbon dioxide may be absorbed by trees or water bodies, or it may stay in the atmosphere when………., while it is only in the atmosphere that chlorofluorocarbons find their home. A. by releasing emissions from cars C. cars that release emissions B. released from car emissions D. emissions are released by cars Question 19: Half of the children were away from school last week because of……..of influenza. A. a break out B. a breakthrough C. an outburst D. an outbreak Question 20: A: This grammar test is the hardest one we’ve ever had this semester B: …………………but I think it’s quite easy. A. I couldn’t agree more. C. You’re right. B. I understand what you’re saying. D. I don’t see in that way. Question 21: So little………….about mathematics that the lecture was completely beyond me. A. I have known B. I knew C. do I know D. did I know Question 22: It’s a formal occasion so we’ll have to…….to the nines no jeans and pullovers this time A. hitch up B. put on C. wear in D. get dressed up Question 23: …………so aggressive, we’d get on much better. A. She was not B. Had she not C. Weren’t she D. If she weren’t Question 24: On the second thought, I believe I will go with you to the theater. A. Upon reflection C. For this time only B. After discussing with my wife D. For the second time Question 25: A: ……………………………………. B: Oh, thank you. I just got it yesterday. A. When have you got this beautiful dress? C. You’ve just bought this beautiful dress, haven’t you? B. How a beautiful dress you’re wearing D. That’s a beautiful dress you have on Question 26: I studied English for four years in high school. …………… had trouble talking with people when I was traveling in the US. A. Therefore, I B. Otherwise, I C. Although I D. However, I Question 27: ………….in the atmosphere is the temperature falling below freezing. A. Frost is produced C. What produces frost B. Frost produces D. What is frost produced Question 28: All………….is a continuous supply of the basic necessities of life. A. what is needed B. for our needs C. the thing needed D. that is needed Question 29: He said that the plane had already left and that I…………………an hour earlier. A. Must have arrived C. should have arrived B. had to arrive D. was supposed to arrive Question 30: There seems to be a large ………. between the number of people employed in service industries, and those employed in the primary sectors. A. discriminate B. discretion C. discrepancy D. distinguish Read the following passage and mark the letter A, B, C or D on your answer sheet to indicate the correct word or phrase for each of the blanks from 31 40 COULD COMPUTER GAMES BE GOOD FOR YOU AFTER ALL In Britain, the average young person now spends more money on games each year than on going to the cinema or renting videos. But is this……..31……a bad thing? For years, newspaper reports have been ………32….. that children who spend too much time playing computer games become unsociable, bad tempered, even violent as a……..33…… But new research,……34…… out in both Europe and the USA, suggests that the opposite may be true. Indeed, playing some of the more complicated games may help people of all ages to improve certain skills. Researchers claim that this is because the games………35……the brain work harder in certain ways, like……..36……sounds and movements quickly and identifying what they are. The fact that people play the games repeatedly……..37…….. that they get a lot of practice in these skills which are therefore likely to become highly developed. Social skills may benefit, too. Researchers in Chicago think that fans of first person shooter games……38…… “Counterstrike” are better than nonplayers when it comes to building trust and cooperation, and that this……..39……them to make good friendships and become strong members of their communities. So rather than……..40…….up computer games, perhaps young people need to spend more time on them? Question 31. Question 32. Question 33. Question 34. Question 35. Question 36. Question 37. Question 38. Question 39. Question 40. A. necessarily A. speaking A. product A. worked A. make A. realizing A. means A. in order to A. supports A. giving B. certainly B. informing B. result B. thought B. force B. noticing B. asks B. such as B. helps B. ending C. fully C. telling C. reason C. turned C. push C. imagining C. brings C. due to C. shows C. taking D. nearly D. saying D. conclusion D. carried D. keep D. solving D. causes D. as well as D. serves D. stopping Read the following passage and mark the letter A, B, C or D on your answer sheet to indicate the correct answer to each of the questions from 41 to 50 A number of factors related to the voice reveal the personality of the speaker. The first is the broad area of communication, which includes imparting information by use of language, communicating with a group or an individual and specialized communication through performance. A person conveys thoughts and ideas through choice of words, by a tone of voice that is pleasant or unpleasant, gentle or harsh, by the rhythm that is inherent within the language itself, and by speech rhythms that are flowing and regular or uneven and hesitant, and finally, by the pitch and melody of the utterance. When speaking before a group, a persons tone may indicate uncertainty or fright, confidence or calm. At interpersonal levels, the tone may reflect ideas and feelings over and above the words chosen, or may belie them. Here the participant’s tone can consciously or unconsciously reflect intuitive sympathy or antipathy, lack of concern or interest, fatigue, anxiety, enthusiasm or excitement, all of which are .usually discernible by the acute listener. Public performance is a manner of communication that is highly specialized with its own techniques for obtaining effects by voice and or gesture. The motivation derived from the text, and in the case of singing, the music, in combination with the performers skills, personality, and ability to create empathy will determine the success of artistic, political, or pedagogic communication. Second, the voice gives psychological clues to a persons selfimage, perception of others, and emotional health. Selfimage can be indicated by a tone of voice that is confident, pretentious, shy, aggressive, outgoing, or exuberant, to name only a few personality traits. Also the sound may give a clue to the facade or mask of that person, for example, a shy person hiding behind an overconfident front. How a speaker perceives the listeners receptiveness, interest, or sympathy in any given conversation can drastically alter the tone of presentation, by encouraging or discouraging the speaker. Emotional health is evidenced in the voice by free and melodic sounds of the happy, by constricted and harsh sound of the angry, and by dull and lethargic qualities of the depressed. Question 41. What does the passage mainly discuss? A. The function of the voice in performance C. The connection between voice and personality B. Communication styles D. The production of speech Question 42. What does the author mean by staring that, At interpersonal levels, tone may reflect ideas and feelings over and above the words chosen in lines 8 9? A. Feelings are expressed with different words than ideas are. B. The tone of voice can carry information beyond the meaning of words. C. A high tone of voice reflects an emotional communication. D. Feelings are more difficult to express than ideas. Question 43. The word Here in line 9 refers to…………… A. interpersonal interactions B. the tone C. ideas and feelings D. words chosen Question 44. The word derived in line 13 is closest in meaning to……… A. discussed B. prepared C. registered D. obtained Question 45. Why does the author mention artistic, political, or pedagogic communication in line 1415? A. As examples of public performance B. As examples of basic styles of communication C. To contrast them to singing D. To introduce the idea of selfimage Question 46. According to the passage, an exuberant tone of voice may be an indication of a persons……… A. general physical health B. personality C. ability to communicate D. vocal quality Question 47. According to the passage, an overconfident front may hide………… A. hostility B. shyness C. friendliness D. strength Question 48. The word drastically in line 21 is closest in meaning to…………… A. frequently B. exactly C. severely D. easily Question 49. The word evidenced in line 22 is closest in meaning to…………… A. questioned B. repeated C. indicated D. exaggerated Question 50. According to the passage, what does a constricted and harsh voice indicate? A. Lethargy B. Depression C. Boredom D. Anger Mark the letter A, B, C or D on your answer sheet to indicate the word whose underlined part is pronounced differently from that of the rest ones Question 51: A. merchant B. sergeant C. commercial D. term Question 52: A. colonel B. journal C. touring D. adjourn Question 53: A. obstacle B. obscure C. obsession D. oblivious Question 54: A. amuses B. purses C. blouses D. pleases Question 55: A. Valentine B. imagine C. discipline D. determine Read the following passage and mark the letter A, B, C or D on your answer sheet to indicate the correct answer to each of the questions from 56 64 Butterflies are among the most extensively studied insects—an estimated 90 percent of the worlds species have scientific names. As a consequence, they are perhaps the best group of insects for examining patterns of terrestrial biotic diversity and distribution. Butterflies also have a favorable image with the general public. Hence, they are an excellent group for communicating information on science and conservation issues such as diversity. Perhaps the aspect of butterfly diversity that has received the most attention over the past century is the striking difference in species richness between tropical and temperate regions. For example, in 1875 one biologist pointed out the diversity of butterflies in the Amazon when he mentioned that about 700 species were found within an hours walk, whereas the total number found on the British islands did not exceed 66, and the whole of Europe supported only 321. This early comparison of tropical and temperate butterfly richness has been well confirmed. A general theory of diversity would have to predict not only this difference between temperate and tropical zones, but also patterns within each region, and how these patterns vary among different animal and plant groups. However, for butterflies, variation of species richness within temperate or tropical regions, rather man between them, is poorly understood. Indeed, comparisons of numbers of species among the Amazon basin, tropical Asia, and Africa are still mostly personal communication citations, even for vertebrates, In other words, unlike comparison between temperate and tropical areas, these patterns are still in the documentation phase. In documenting geographical variation in butterfly diversity, some arbitrary, practical decisions are made. Diversity, number of species, and species richness are used synonymously; little is known about the evenness of butterfly distribution. The New World butterflies make up the preponderance of examples because they are the most familiar species. It is hoped that by focusing on them, the errors generated by imperfect and incomplete taxonomy will be minimized. Question 56: The word consequence in line 2 is closest in meaning to……………. A. result B. explanation C. analysis D. requirement Question 57: The word striking in line 7 is closest in meaning to……………… A. physical B. confusing C. noticeable D. successful Question 58: Butterflies are a good example for communicating information about conservation issues because they……… A. are simple in structure C. are viewed positively by people B. have been given scientific names D. are found mainly in temperate climates Question 59: The word “exceed” in line 10 is closest in meaning to………………. A. locate B. allow C. go beyond D. come close to Question 60: Which of the following is NOT well understood by biologists? A. European butterfly habitats B. Differences in species richness between temperate and tropical regions C. Differences in species richness within a temperate or a tropical region D. Comparisons of behavior patterns of butterflies and certain animal groups Question 61: All of the followings are mentioned as being important parts of a general theory of diversity EXCEPT……………. A. differences between temperate and tropical zones B. patterns of distribution of species in each region C. migration among temperate and tropical zones D. variation of patterns of distribution of species among different animals and plants Question 62: Which aspect of butterflies does the passage mainly discuss? A. Their physical characteristics C. Their names B. Their adaptation to different habitats D. Their variety Question 63: The author mentions tropical Asia in lines 1617 as an example of a location where…… A. butterfly behavior varies with climate B. a general theory of butterfly diversity has not yet been firmly established C. butterflies are affected by human populations D. documenting plant species is more difficult than documenting butterfly species Question 64: The word generated in line 24 is closest in meaning to………. A. requested B. caused C. assisted D. estimated Mark the letter A, B, C or D on your answer sheet to show the underlined part that needs correction Question 65: All of the mammals, dolphins are undoubtedly among the friendly to human A B C D Question 66: Many of the important products obtained from trees, one of the most important is A B C wood pulp, which is used in papermaking. D Question 67: All nations may have to make fundamental changes in their economic, political, and A B the technological institutions if they are to preserve environment. C D Question 68: Chicagos Sears Tower, now the tallest building in the world, rises 1,522 feet from the A B C ground to the top of it antenna. D Question 69: It was suggested that Pedro studies the material more thoroughly before attempting A B C to pass the exam. D Question 70: In just three months H.G. Wells wrote the famous classic The Time Machine for what A B C he won a Newberry Caldecot award. D Mark the letter A, B, C or D on your answer sheet to indicate the sentence that is closest in meaning to each of the following questions Question 71: If it hadn’t been for his carelessness, we would have finished the work. A. He was careless because he hadn’t finished the work. B. If her were careful, we would finish the work. C. If he had been more careful, we would have completed the work. D. Because he wasn’t careless, we didn’t finish the work. Question 72: The hostess made every effort to see that her guests got the food and drinks they wanted. A. The hostess was reluctant to offer her guests food and drinks. B. The hostess tried hard to please her guests. C. The guests refused the food and drinks prepared by the hostess. D. Neither the guests nor the hostess had food or drinks. Question 73: The meeting was put off because of pressure of time. A. The meeting started earlier because people wanted to leave early. B. The meeting was planned to start late because of time pressure. C. The meeting lasted much longer than usual. D. There was not enough time to hold the meeting. Question 74: Twice as many men as women are insurance agents. A. More men than women have insurance. B. Male insurance agents outnumber female agents. C. Women are twice as likely as men to have sold insurance. D. Insurance is twice as difficult to sell to women as to men. Question 75: Most people get fewer colds in the summer than in the winter. A. A person is more likely to get a cold in the winter than in the summer. B. More people have summer colds than winter colds. C. People get colder in the summer than in the winter. D. The winter is much colder than the summer. Mark the letter A, B, C or D on your answer sheet to indicate the sentence that expresses the best meaning formed by the given words Question 76:. No doubt Alison promote A. It’s no doubt Alison will be promoting. B. There’s no doubt that Alison will be promoted. C. There’s no doubt Alison will promote. D. It’s no doubt that Alison is promoted. Question 77: your organization possible conference place A. Your organization made it possible to take place this conference. B. Your organization made possible for this conference to take place. C. Your organization made it possible this conference to take place. D. Your organization made it possible for this conference to take place. Question 78: when you make mind university attend? A. When are you going to make up your mind about which university to attend? B. When will you make up your mind which university to attend? C. When are you going to make your mind about which university to attend? D. When are you making up your mind about university to attend? Question 79: I not see point rule we not cycle school A. I can’t see the point of this rule which we don’t cycle to school. B. I can’t see the point of this rule which says we can’t cycle to school. C. I don’t see the point of this rule which we are not allowed to cycle to school. D. I can’t see the point of rule which says we can’t cycle to school. Question 80: despite short day we complain much do A. Despite such a short day, we tend to complain about having too much to do. B. Despite such a short day, we tend to complain having too much to do. C. Despite a short day, we tend to complain about too much to do. D. Despite such short day, we tend to complain about having too much do. THE END
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Đề thi thử THPT Quốc gia môn Anh năm 2015 - THPT Bỉm Sơn lần 1

Đề thi thử THPT Quốc gia môn Anh năm 2015 - THPT Bỉm Sơn lần 1

Đề thi thử THPT Quốc gia môn tiếng Anh năm 2015 lần 1 - THPT Bỉm Sơn Họ, tên thí sinh:.......................................................................... Số báo danh:............................................................................... Mark the letter A, B, C, or D on your answer sheet to indicate the words whose pronunciation is different from the others in each of the following questions. Question 1. A. watched                B. stopped               C. pushed                   D. naked Question 2. A. cooks                    B. loves                   C. joins                D. spends Mark the letter A, B, C, or D on your answer sheet to indicate the word that differs from the rest in the position of the main stress in each of the following questions. Question 3.  A. cancer             B. treatment           C. tissue                    D. disease Question 4.  A. intensity          B. accurate              C. erosion            D. miraculous Question 5.  A. participate          B. interviewer       C. honorable              D. intimacy Mark the letter A, B, C, or D on your answer sheet to indicate the correct answer to each of the following questions. Question 6. She had to work on _______last night, so she is very tired this morning. A. the roof                    B. the factory          C. the office                  D. night shift Question 7. The theory of relativity________ by Einstein, who was a famous physicist. A. was developed            B. is developed         C. develops              D. developed Question 8. The guidelines in this book can help you become a _________ speaker. A. confide                   B. confident          C. confidence                 D. self-confidence Question 9.   _______he got top marks at high school, he never went to university. A. Despite                    B. Although              C. Meanwhile                  D. Nevertheless Question 10. Since I _________ a child, I have solved difficult Math puzzles. A. am                           B. was                  C. have been         D. had been Question 11. InEngland , English, Math and Science are_______ subjects at school. A. more            B. store                          C. score                              D. core Question 12. It's ____ to transfer drugs in our country. A.  legally                     B.  illegally                C.  illegal                   D.  legal Question 13. “It’s about time you_______ your homework, Mary.” A. must do             B. did                             C. do                          D. will do Question 14.  If peopple drove more carefully, there_______ so many accidents on the road. A. would not be          B. will not be         C. wouldn’t have been               D. aren’t Question 15. Tom said that he __________his motorbike the day before. A. had lost                         B. lost                                 C. has lost                             D. lose Question 16. When Jack __________me, I__________a letter.  A. phoned/ has been writing                       B. has phoned/ was writing  C. phoned/ was writing                               D. was phoning/ wrote Question 17. You should concentrate on what the __________is saying and try to answer all the questions  thoroughly. A. interview             B. interviewer                C. interviewee           D. interviewed Question 18.  Last night’s concert did not _________ our expectations. A. catch up with             B. stand in for             C. come up to             D. look up to Question 19. A college is a public institution ______ higher education to young men and women. A.  providing            B. which provide          C. to provide to            D. provided to Question 20. She is not very keen ________ going toSpain again so soon for holidays. A. for               B. on                             C. of                              D. to Question 21. There are __________ in the universe that we can not count them all. A. so many stars      B. so much stars       C. such stars many            D. such stars much  Question 22.  A number of  prisoners _______ on the occasion of the Independence Day this year. A. has been released      B. have been released       C. were released        D. was released Question 23. __________ migrate long distances is well documented. A. That it is birds          B. That birds               C. Birds that           D. It is that birds Question 24. There are about 50 _________ for each vacancy. A. competitors        B. attendants          C. applicants          D. interviewers Question 25.  ______ with her boyfriend yesterday, she doesn't want to answer his phone call. A. Having quarreled                                       B. Because having quarreled C. Because-of she quarreled                           D. Had quarreled Question 26. The company fell deeper and deeper into the  _________ and then went bankrupt. A. black                       B. green              C. yellow                 D. red Question 27. Tim: Do you work full time at the supermarket?                            Mary: No, only_________when they need extra staff.   A. on and off             B. in and out           C. by and by          D. up and down Question 28. Janet: “Do you feel like going to the cinema this evening?”                         -Susan: "_______ .” A. You’re welcome                                        B. That would be great            C. I feel very bored                                        D. I don't agree, I'm afraid Question 29. Peter: I didn’t know you could play badminton so well, David.                       David: Thank you. _________. I wish I could play half as well as you. A. That’s a nice compliment                          B. That is not your fault C. You’re welcome                                        D. I certainly play very excellent Question 30. “ I am terribly sorry !”      “ _______” A. It’s nothing          B. Nothing               C. Don’t worry            D. Never mind ! Question 31. Peter: “ Janet, make us some tea, will you?”                       Janet: “_________” A. No, I won’t I’m afraid.                                        C. Don’t worry. Go ahead B. Sorry, I don’t                                                       D. I can’t I’m afraid Question 32.  Peter: Do you have a minute please?                             Tim: ____________.   A. Yes. But you should be brief                               B. That’s just fantastic. Thank.   C. Sorry, I left my watch at home.                           D. Well, it is not as good as I think Mark the letter A, B, C or D on your answer sheet to indicate the word(s) CLOSEST in meaning to the underlined word(s) in each of the following questions. Question 33. When being interviewed, you should concentrate on what the interviewer is saying or asking you. A. be related to            B. be interested in         C. pay all attention to       D. express interest in Question 34. He drives me to the edge because he never stops talking. A. steers me             B. irritates me                   C. moves me          D. frightens me Mark the letter A, B, C, or D on your answer sheet to indicate the word OPPOSITE in meaning to the underlined word(s) in each of the following questions. Question 35. Certain courses are compulsory; others are optional. A. voluntary               B. free                  C. pressure             D. mandatory Read  the following passage and choose the best answer for each blank. Parents whose children show a special interest in a particular sport have a difficult decision to (36) ______  about their children’s career. Should they (37) ______ their children to train to become top sportsmen and women? For many children it (38) ______starting very young and school work, going out with friends and other (39) ______ have to take second place. It’s very difficult to explain to a young child why he or she has to train for five hours a day, even at the weekend, when (40) _______ of his or her friends are playing. Another problem is of course money. In many countries money for training is (41) ______ from the government for the very best young sportsmen and women. If this help cannot be given, it means that it is the parents (42) ______ have to find the time and the money to support their child’s development- and sports clothes, transport to competitions, special equipment etc. can all be very expensive. Many parents are understandably (43) _______ that it is dangerous to start serious training in a sport at an early age. Some doctors agree that young (44) _______ may be damaged by training before they are properly developed. Professional trainers, however, believe that it is only by starting young that you can reach the top as a successful sports person. What is clear is that very (45) _______ people reach the top and both parents and children should be prepared for failure even after many years of training. Question 36. A. do               B. plan                 C. make              D.prepare Question 37. A. allow              B. let                     C. leave                       D. offer Question 38. A. should           B. means         C. helps                        D.tries            Question 39. A. wishes              B. dreams            C. satisfactions          D. interests Question 40. A. almost          B. mostly          C. most                  D. plenty Question 41. A. enough          B. available             C. possible              D. enormous Question 42. A. that             B. whom            C. they                       D. which Question 43. A. distributed             B. concerned         C. cared               D. worried Question 44. A bloods            B. capacities         C. muscles                D. physics Question 45. A. little                   B. few                C. a few                  D. many Read the following passage and mark the letter A, B, C, or D on your answer sheet to indicate the correct answer for each of the questions from 46 to 55. Increasing numbers of parents in the U.S. are choosing to teach their children at home. In fact, the U.S. Department of Education has estimated that in 1999, about 850,000 children were being homeschooled. Some educational experts say that the real number is double this estimate, and the ranks of homeschooled children seem to be growing at the average rate of about eleven percent every year. At one time, there was a theory accounting for homeschooling: it was traditionally used for students who could not attend school because of behavioral or learning difficulties. Today, however, more parents are taking on the responsibility of educating their own children at home due to their dissatisfaction with the educational system. Many parents are unhappy about class size, as well as problems inside the classroom. Teacher shortages and lack of funding mean that, in many schools, one teacher is responsible for thirty or forty students. The children are, therefore, deprived of the attention they need. Escalating classroom violence has also motivated some parents to remove their children from school. Although there have been a lot of arguments for and against it, homeschooling in the U.S. has become a multi-million dollar industry, and it is growing bigger and bigger. There are now plenty of websites, support groups, and conventions that help parents protect their rights and enable them to learn more about educating their children. Though once it was the only choice for troubled children, homeschooling today is an accepted alternative to an educational system that many believe is failing. Question 46  The past participle “homeschooled” in the first paragraph is best equivalent to “_____at home”. A. taught                            B. self-learned                  C. untaught     D. self-studied Question 47.  This estimated number was presented by _____. A. a governmental office        B. school teachers       C. the parents             D. homeschooled children Question 48.  According to some experts, the exact number of homeschooled children in the US in the last year of the 20th  century=thtthth must be _____. A. 1,600,000                           B. 850,000                  C. 1,900,000              D. 1,700,000 Question 49. Parents can teach children at home with the support of __________. A. The internet, conventions along with support groups                        B. support groups, teachers and websites        C. documents, websites and  support groups                                D. books, support groups and the Internet Question 50.  More parents teach their children because they completely _____ the current educational system. A. please with                         B. object to                 C. appeal to                 D. approve of Question 51. The word “arguments” at the beginning of the third paragraph can be best replaced by “_____”. A. rows                                   B. quarrels                   C. viewpoints              D. discussions Question 52. The attitude of the author towards homeschooling can be best described as _____. A. acceptable                     B. favorable             C. remarkable             D. unfavorable Question 53. The number of parents who want to teach their own children in the U.S. is _____. A. remaining unchanged         B. remaining the same    C. going up         D. going down Question 54. Many parents stop their children from going to school because it is now too _____ for them. A. explosive                   B. expensive                  C. dangerous             D. humorous Question 55. Which is the best tittle for the passage: A. Reasons for Homeschooling in theUSA. B. The Trend of homeschooling in theUSA. C. Homeschooling- one of the ways of education in theUSA. D. Education system in theUSA.  Read the passage and mark the letter A, B, C or D to indicate the correct answer to each of the questions from 56 to 65.          Choosing a career may be one of the hardest jobs you ever have, and it must be done with care. View a career as an opportunity to do something you love, not simply as a way to earn a living. Investing the time and effort to thoroughly explore your options can mean the difference between finding a stimulating and rewarding career and move from job to unsatisfying job in an attempt to find the right one. Work influences virtually every aspect of your life, from your choice of friends to where you live. Here are just a few of the factors to consider.             Deciding what matters most to you is essential to making the right decision. You may want to begin by assessing your likes, dislikes, strengths, and weaknesses. Think about the classes, hobbies, and surroundings that you find most appealing. Ask yourself questions, such as “Would you like to travel ? Do you want to work with children ? Are you more suited to solitary or cooperative work ?” There are no right or wrong answers ; only you know what is important to you. Determine which job features you require, which ones you would prefer, and which ones you cannot accept. Then rank them in order of importance to you.             The setting of the job is one factor to take into account. You may not want to sit at a desk all day. If not, there are diversity occupation – building inspector, supervisor, real estate agent – that involve a great deal of time away from the office. Geographical location may be a concern, and employment in some fields is concentrated in certain regions. Advertising job can generally be found only in large cities. On the other hand, many industries such as hospitality, law education, and retail sales are found in all regions of the country.If a high salary is important to you, do not judge a career by its starting wages. Many jobs, such as insurance sales, offers relatively low starting salaries; however, pay substantially increases along with your experience, additional training, promotions and commission.             Don’t rule out any occupation without learning more about it. Some industries evoke positive or negative associations. The traveling life of a flight attendant appears glamorous, while that of a plumber does not. Remember that many jobs are not what they appear to be at first, and may have merits or demerits that are less obvious. Flight attendants must work long, grueling hours without sleeps, whereas plumbers can be as highly paid as some doctors. Another point to consider is that as you get mature, you will likely to develop new interests and skills that may point the way to new opportunities. The choice you make today need not be your final one.  Question 56. The author states that “There are no right or wrong answers” in order to _______. A. emphasize that each person’s answers will be different. B. show that answering the questions is a long and difficult process. C. indicate that the answers are not really important. D. indicate that each person’s answers may change over time. Question 57. The word “them” in paragraph 2 refers to _________. A. questions                    B. answers                C. features                         D. jobs Question  58. The word “assessing” in paragraph 2 could best be replaced by ________. A. discovering               B. considering                C. measuring               D. disposing Question  59. According to paragraph 3, which of the following fields is NOT suitable for a person who does not want  to live in a big city ?   A. plumbing                    B. law                     C. retail sales                    D. advertising Question 60. Those are all the factors you should take into account when choosing a job except__________. A.Your likes and your dislikes B. The atmosphere at work C. Geographical location D. Your strengths and weaknesses Question 61. The word “that” in paragraph 4 refers to  A. occupation                  B. the traveling life              C. a flight attendant              D. commission  Question 62. It can be inferred from the paragraph 3 that ________. A. jobs in insurance sales are generally not well-paid. B. insurance sales people can earn high salary later in their career. C. people should constantly work toward the next promotion. D. a starting salary should be an important consideration in choosing a career. Question 63. In paragraph 5, the author suggests that ________. A. you may want to change careers at some time in the future. B. as you get older, your career will probably less fulfilling. C. you will be at your job for a lifetime, so choose carefully. D. you will probably jobless at some time in the future. Question  64. Why does the author mention “long, grueling hours without sleeps” in paragraph 4 ? A. To emphasize the difficulty of working as a plumber. B. To contrast the reality of a flight attendant’s job with most people’s perception. C. To show that people must work hard for the career they have chosen. D. To discourage readers from choosing a career as a flight attendant. Question 65. According to the passage, which of the following is true ? A. To make a lot of money, you should not take a job with a low starting salary. B. To make lots of money, you should rule out all factory jobs. C. If you want an easy and glamorous lifestyle, you should consider becoming flight attendant D. Your initial view of certain careers may not be accurate. Mark the letter A, B, C or D on your answer sheet to indicate the underlined part that needs correction in each of the following questions. Mark the letter A, B, C, or D on your answer sheet to choose the sentence which is closest  in meaning to the given one. Question 71.  I didn’t listen to him and I didn’t succeed. A. If I listened to him, I would have succeed                    B. If I had listened to him , I would have succeeded. C. If I had listened to him , I would succeed.                   D. If I listened to him I would succeed. Question 72. Calling Jim is pointless because his phone is out of order. A. It’s useless calling Jim because his phone is out of order. B. It’s no use to call Jim because his phone is out of order. C. There’s no point in calling Jim because his phone is out of order. D. It’s worth not calling Jim because his phone is out of order. Question 73. I’m like my mum, whereas my brother looks like my dad. A. I’m like my mum, whereas my brother takes after my dad. B. I’m like my mum, whereas my brother takes over my dad. C. I’m like my mum, whereas my brother takes to my dad. D. I’m like my mum, whereas my brother takes in my dad. Question 74. People on Jeju Island have a unique culture. A. People on Jeju Island have the same culture as other people in the world. B. The culture of the people on Jeju Island differs from that of any other people in the world. C. No people in the world have the same culture.                  D. Only the people on Jeju Island have a unique culture. Question 75. Paul fell ill, so he didn't attend the conference. A. Paul was supposed to have gone to the conference, but he fell ill. B. Although Paul fell ill, he didn't attend to the conference. C. Because of he was ill, Paul didn't attend the conference.   D. Paul didn't attend the conference as a result of his ill. Mark the letter A, B, C, or D on your answer sheet to indicate the best way to complete each of the following sentences. Question 76. The temperature inversions often occur when ________ in the late afternoon. A. the earth's surface is cooled                                   B. the earth's surface is cooling C. the surface of earth cooled                                     D. cooling the earth's surface Question 77. The children sing loudly _________. A. as though they are the winners                              B. though they are the winners C. as if they were the winners                                                D. were they the winners Question 78. ______________ , but it also filters out harmful sun rays. A. Not only does the atmosphere give us air to breathe B. Not only the atmosphere gives us air to breathe C. The atmosphere gives us air to breathe D. The atmosphere which gives us air to breathe Question 79.The economists in the world highly appreciate the economic situation of the U.S, ____. A. pumping millions of dollars by the president.                    B. where is pumped millions of dollars by the president. C. pump millions of dollars by the president.             D. which is pumped millions of dollars by the president. Question 80.The instruction from the train traffic control was not consistent with the train drivers,_______.  A. so that the drivers made an error and crashed       B. as a result, the drivers made an error and crashed C. therefore the drivers made it crash                                     D. resulting from the drivers crashing the plane  Đáp án sẽ được Tuyensinh247 cập nhật sau. Các bạn comment đáp án phía dưới để cùng nhau tìm ra đáp án chính xác nhé. Nguồn
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Đề thi thử môn anh đáp án chi tiet nam 2016 đề 1

Đề thi thử môn anh đáp án chi tiet nam 2016 đề 1

Họ và tên thí sinh:…………………………………………. Số báo danh:……………………………………………….. Mã đề số 423 A. PHẦN TRẮC NGHIỆM (64 Question; 8 điểm) I. Mark the letter A, B, C, D on your answer sheet to indicate the word whose underlined part differs from the other three in pronunciation in each of the following questions. Question 1: A. canoeing B. career C. canal D. caring Question 2: A. fasten B. often C. digest D. castle Question 3: A. non−existent B. none C. nonsense D. gross II. Mark the letter A, B, C, D on your answer sheet to indicate the word that differs from the other three in the position of the primary in each of the following questions. Question 4: A. Christianity B. centenarian C. eradicated D. economic Question 5: A. pioneer B. committee C. precision D. gorilla III. Mark the letter A, B, C, D on your answer sheet to indicate the correct answer to each of the following questions. Question 6: You saved my life. I thank you from the ____ of my heart. A. centre B. bottom C. depths D. top Question 7: Did you have an argument with Francis?” “If you had been there, you ____ the same.” A. did B. would have done C. had done D. would be Question 8: If orders keep coming in like this, I‟ll have to ____ more staff. A. give up B. add in C. gain on D. take on Question 9: He couldn‟t rest or sleep because ____ too much coffee. A. drinking B. been drinking C. had been drinking D. he had been drinking Question 10: There is a very clear relationship ____ education and academic success. A. about B. between C. for D. in Question 11: Everyone should travel; it really ____ the mind. A. broadens B. develops C. opens D. widens Question 12: Many people believe that violent computer games can have a harmful ____ on children. A. affect B. effect C. damage D. involvement Question 13: Navigation around the globe is a lot simpler thanks to the information we receive from ____. A. satellites B. stations C. systems D. shuttles Question 14: What do you think ____ me? A. told B. they told C. didn‟t tell D. did he tell Question 15: When you do something, you should _________. A. weigh up the pros and cons B. get through to C. turn over a new leaf D. go down well with Question 16: Something ____ happened or they would be here by now. A. must B. must be C. must have D. must have been Question 17: We were told to put it where it was usually ____. A. belonged B. fit C. had D. stored Question 18: A demonstration is an act of showing by giving proof or ____evidence. A. a B. an C. the D. Ø A. a B. an C. the D. Ø Fanpage : Đề Thi Thử THPT Quốc Gia Tài Liệu Ôn Thi http:facebook.comdethithu.net KÌ THI THỬ LẦN 1 CHUẨN BỊ CHO KÌ THI THPT QUỐC GIA Môn thi: TIẾNG ANH Thời gian làm bài: 90 phút Website: http:dethithu.net www.DeThiThu.Net DeThiThu.Net www.DeThiThu.Net DeThiThu.NetQuestion 19: She liked to say that she was just one of his ____ happy customers. A. all B. lots of C. many D. some Question 20: I asked Meg earlier if she thought it would rain and she said “I ____.” A. hope B. hope it C. hope not D. don‟t hope so Question 21: I‟m ____ a swimmer as my sister. A. better B. good as C. not as good D. so good Question 22: We decided to ____ in Athens for a few days on our way home. A. stop over B. put up C. set up D. close down Question 23: Some of the girls in my group tease me because I don‟t wear makeup but I don‟t ____. A. wear B. care C. do D. like Question 24: There is no point in trying to warn him of the danger. He will just ____ a deaf car. A. show B. turn C. give D. offer IV. Mark the letter A, B, C, D on your answer sheet to indicate the word(s) OPPOSITE in meaning to the underlined word(s) in each of the following questions. Question 25: Prior to World War I, 20 percent of American homes had electricity. A. Before B. During C. After D. Despite Question 26: The flowering pebble is a plant that looks like a stone and grows in arid areas. A. deserted B. damp C. dry D. barren V. Mark the letter A, B, C, D to indicate the word(s) SIMILAR in meaning to the underlined word(s) in each of the following questions. Question 27: Originally developed for Southern California, the Richter Scale was expanded for worldwide use. A. prolonged B. enlarged C. minuscule D. swamped Question 28: The jute, a relative of the basswood trees, flourishes in warm humid climates. A. amplifies B. swells C. thrives D. prolongs Question 29: Excessive amounts of lead in the air can decrease a child‟s intelligence. A. boom B. diminish C. abate D. swamp VI. Mark the letter A, B, C, D on your answer sheet to indicate the underlined part that needs correction in each of the following questions. Question 30: Playing jokes on April Fool‟s Day is common in many regions, although noneknows how the tradition began. A. jokes on B. none C. knows how D. began Question 31: Farmers in all parts of Asia own their own farms, but tenant farmers are also practiced. A. Farmers B. own C. own farms D. farmers are Question 32: Japanese initially usedjeweled objects to decorate swords and ceremonial items. A. Japanese B. used C. jeweled D. decorate Question 33: Because of attitudes shape behavior, psychologists want to find out how opinions arc formed. A. Because of B. shape C. psychologists D. are formed Question 34: As the roles of people in society change, so does the rules of conduct in certain situations. A. As the roles B. so does C. rules of D. situations VII. Read the following passage and mark the letter A, B, C, D on your answer sheet to indicate the correct word or phrase that best fits each of the numbered blanks. Denmark Denmark is the smallest and most southerly of the countries of Scandinavia. (35) ____ lie in northern Europe. It is probably best (36) ____ for being home to the powerful Vikings, (37) ____ 1,000 years ago. Denmark is a small country, with limited natural (38) ____. Nevertheless, it has become one of the richest countries in the (39) ____. Denmark has its own (40) ____ culture and traditions, and a tongue−twisting language, which includes several different dialects. Although Denmark is a member (41) ____ the European Union, recently it has been reluctant to work more closely with the EU and give up (42) ____ of its independence. DeThiThu.Net DeThiThu.NetWealth in Denmark is shared out more evenly than in most countries, because people pay high taxes. Many workers pay more than 50 percent of their wages in tax. The money is used to pay (43)____ a welfare system which includes health care, benefits for the unemployed and the elderly, and public services. Compared to the rest of the world, it is (44) ____ to become either very rich or very poor in Denmark. Question 35: ________(35) A. whose B. when C. which D. where Question 36: ________(36) A. liked B. known C. seen D. heard Question 37: ________(37) A. over B. more C. since D. less Question 38: ________(38) A. resources B. features C. natures D. sources Question 39: ________(39) A. earth B. land C. space D. world Question 40: ________(40) A. distant B. distinctive C. disliked D. disinterested Question 41: ________(41) A. from B. to C. in D. of Question 42: ________(42) A. many B. every C. very D. some Question 43: ________(43) A. at B. for C. on D. to Question 44: ________(44) A. impossible B. simple C. difficult D. easy VIII. Read the following passage and mark the letter A, B, C, D on your answer sheet to indicate the correct answer to each of the questions . Arthur Dove Arthur Dove was an abstract nature painter whose work was radically different and underappreciated in the American art scene. 1 In fact, Dove was the first American artist to paint in an entirely abstract manner. 2 He painted a set of six abstract works around 1910, prior to the European artist Wassily Kandinsky‟s famous abstract compositions. 3 Kandinsky‟s abstract work, however, complemented the cultural context in Europe, and was therefore appreciated. Dove‟s work had no similar cultural context in America. 4 Overall, Doves abstract paintings did nothing to change Amercican art. His work was not once but twice orphaned: by the general indifference of the Amercican public, and by his own reclusive nature. Nevertheless, Doves abstract paintings remain interesting compositions on nature. Dove once wrote, “I would like to make something that is real in itself, or to be real without looking like something else, that does not remind anyone of any other thing, and that does not have to be explained, like the letter A for instance.” Question 45: What is the main purpose of this passage? A. to discuss the effects of Dove‟s work on Europe B. to compare the works of Dove and Kandinsky C. to explain why Dove‟s work is famous D. to explain why Dove‟s paintings did not change the American art scene Question 46: According to the passage, why weren‟t Dove‟s works noticed? A. Because there were too many abstract nature painters at the time. B. Because his paintings did nothing to change society. C. Because they did not have a cultural context in America. D. Because America was not interested in European painters. Question 47: The word orphaned in the passage is closest in meaning to ____. A. criticized B. ignored C. valued D. destroyed Question 48: According to the passage, which of the following is not true about Dove and Kandinsky? DeThiThu.Net DeThiThu.Net DeThiThu.Net DeThiThu.NetA. One was popular, while the other not. B. They were both European painters. C. Their works were somewhat similar. D. They were boih abstract artists. Question 49: The word indịfference in the passage is the opposite of ____. A. dislike B. interest C. joy D. ignorance Question 50: Which of the following can be inferred from the reading? A. Dove gave up painting because the American public did not care. B. Dove„s work is more appreciated today than when it first appeared. C. Dove did not have support from European artists. D. Dove‟s unsuccessful exhibition led him to change his style. Question 51: Which is the best place for the following sentence? “This, however, did not make him famous.” A. 1 B. 2 C. 3 D. 4 Question 52: The word “reclusive in the passage is closest in meaning to ____ . A. charming B. sociable C. shy D. generous Question 53: Which of the following best expresses the meaning of the quotation? A. Dove wanted to create works of art that were absolutely unique. B. Dove wanted people to “read” his paintings as if they were letters. C. Dove wanted his art to remind people of other artists‟ work. D. Dove wanted to create art that was difficult to explain. Question 54: The paragraph following the passage world most probably be _____. A. a discussion of why Dove‟s work was orphaned B. a discussion of the European art scene C. a discussion of the differences between the works of Dove and Kandinsky D. a discussion of Dove‟s best paintings IX. Read the following passage and mark the letter A, B, C, D on your answer sheet to indicate the correct answer to each of the questions . Television An American TV network has had an international hit with the drama 24”. a thriller known for its suspense and often graphic violence. Over the past year, controversy has surrounded the series because of its portrayal of Muslim terrorists and its frequent scenes of torture. But the content of “24” is not the only thing that would have been unthinkable on prime−time television 20 years ago. Its form also represents a major change in modem TV: during each episode‟s 44 minutes − a real−time hour, minus 16 minutes for commercials – the show connects the lives of 21 different characters, each with their own personalities and specific relationships with other characters. Nine different story lines (or “threads) arc depicted, each involving events and information revealed in previous episodes. I 2 For years many people have assumed that popular culture is in a state of decline rapidly degenerating into “junk culture with no worthwhile purpose. But an interesting new book challenges that assumption. “Everything Bad is Good for You: How Today‟s Popular Culture Is Actually Making Us Smarter, by Steven Johnson, makes a persuasive argument that today‟s complex TV dramas and other pop culture Products gives healthy mental exercise. He calls the use or complex, interwoven plot lines involving multiple characters “multi−threading”, and it is a new and growing phenomenon in TV To keep up with shows like “24, he points out, you must “pay attention, make inferences, track shifting social relationships, and these cognitive challenges are changịng our mental development for the better. 3 4 The most obvious change in the last five years of narrative entertainment is the rise of reality TV, Surely, you might be thinking, watching “Survivor or “The Bachelor” cannot possibly raise anyones IQ “Survivor” is now in its tenth season, and “The Bachelor” is in its seventh. But as Johnson tells us lately “even the junk has improved”. The new reality shows are like games: they arc series of competitive tests, each more challenging than the last, and with rules that must be learned as you play. On “Survivor for instance, the participants and the audience know the general objective of the game but each episode brings new challenges that require quick thinking. Success in these games calls for the intellectual labor of finding the weak spots in the rules and in your opponents. This labor is done not just by the stars of the shows but the viewers at home as well. This is what makes these shows such fun to watch − the human mind enjoys being challenged. As Johnson writes, “There‟s real pleasure ... in solving puzzles, detectingpatterns or understanding a complex narrative system. DeThiThu.NetQuestion 55: What is the topic of the passage? A. The decline of TV today B. Benefits of TV today C. TV and culture D. Why “24” became a hit Question 56: Which is the best place for the following sentence? “It is not only hour−long dramas that make us smarter. A. l B. 2 C. 3 D. 4 Question 57: The word “each” in paragraph I refers to ____. . A. story lines B. characters C. episodes D. personalities Question 58: The author begins the passage by discussing “24” in order to ____. A. prove that TV has become much more violent B. show how TV has become more complex C. explain why many TV shows nowadays are controversial D. argue against ỈIS graphic violence and portrayal of terrorists Question 59: It can be inferred that the author of the passage A. agrees with Steven Johnson‟s views B. strongly disagrees with Steven Johnsons views C. has no opinion about Steven Johnson‟s views D. agrees with some of Johnson‟s views but disagrees with others Question 60: According to the passage, Johnson‟s book argues all following except that ____. A. popular culture is not in decline B. many TV shows involve cognitive challenges C. people enjoy the effort of understanding complex shows D. hour−long dramas bring the greatest benefits Question 61: Multi−threading in TV is a new type of ____. . A. form B. content C. series D. character Question 62: The author mentions junk culture” in paragraph 2 in order to ____ . A. emphasize how worthless most TV shows are B. contrast a common view of TV with the one he presents in the passage C. explain why TV viewing is in decline in the United States D. argue against the view that popular culture can be worthwhile Question 63: The word “they in paragraph 3 refers to ____. A. junk B. shows C. games D. “Joe Millionaire” and The Bachelor” Question 64: The word detecting in paragraph 3 is closest in meaning to ____ . A. making B. admiring C. remembering D. finding Part II. Complete the second sentence so that it has a similar meaning to the first sentence. Question65: Students may not park here. Students are. ....................................................................................................................................... Question66: We‟ve written fifty per cent of the report already. Half . .................................................................................................................................................... Question67: She didn‟t escape injury; she wasnt wearing a crash helmet. If only ................................................................................................................................................. Question68: Amy was bitten by a dog when she was very young and she still remembers it. Amy still remembers . ......................................................................................................................... Question69: “I shall return the day after tomorrow. His only comment . ............................................................................................................................. In about 140 words, write a paragraph about benefits of physical exercises ĐÁP ÁN VÀ LỜI GIẢI CHI TIẾT 1.D 2.C 3.B 4.C 5.A 6.B 7.B 8.D 9.D 10.B 11.A 12.B 13.A 14.B 15.A 16.C 17.D 18.D 19.C 20.C 21.C 22.A 23.B 24.B 25.C 26.B 27.B 28.C 29.B 30.B DeThiThu.Net Question69: “I shall return the day after tomorrow. Hi s only comment . ............................................................................................................................. Đề Luận : An about 140 words, write a paragraph about benefits of physical exercises DeThiThu.Net31.D 32.A 33.A 34.B 35.C 36.B 37.A 38.A 39.D 40.B 41.D 42.D 43.B 44.C 45.D 46.C 47.B 48.B 49.B 50.B 51.C 52.C 53.A 54.D 55.B 56.D 57.A 58.B 59.D 60.D 61.A 62.B 63.C 64.D Question 1. Đáp án D Đáp án là D. Từ caring có phần gạch chân được phát âm là eə, các từ còn lại có phần gạch chân được phát âm là ə Question 2. Đáp án C Đáp án là C. Từ digest có phần gạch chân được phát âm là t, các từ còn lại có phần gạch chân không được phát âm Question 3. Đáp án B Đáp án là B. Từ none có phần gạch chân được phát âm là ʌ, các từ còn lại có phần gạch chân được phát âm là ɒ Question 4. Đáp án C Đáp án là C. Từ eradicate nhấn âm tiết thứ hai, các từ còn lại nhấn âm thứ ba. Question 5. Đáp án A Đáp án là A. Từ pioneer nhấn âm tiết thứ ba, các từ còn lại nhấn âm thứ hai. Question 6. Đáp án B Đáp án là B. from the bottom of one‟s heart: tận đáy lòng .. Question 7. Đáp án B Đáp án là B. Câu điều kiện loại III: If + S + had + PII, S + would + have + PII. Question 8. Đáp án D Đáp án là D. take on: Nhận vào làm, thuê, mướn (người làm...) Các cụm còn lại: give up: từ bỏ, add in: thêm vào; gain on: Tranh thủ được lòng (ai) Question 9. Đáp án D Dễ dàng nhận thấy, because + clause → chỉ đáp án D là chấp nhận được Dịch: Anh ta không thể nghỉ ngơi hay ngủ được bởi vì anh ta đã uống quá nhiều café. Question 10. Đáp án B Đáp án là B. between …. and …..: giữa ….. và …. Question 11. Đáp án A Đáp án là A. Broaden the mind – mở rộng hiểu biết Question 12. Đáp án B Đáp án là B. Cấu trúc: have a effect on …: có ảnh hưởng đến….. Question 13. Đáp án A Đáp án là A. satellites: vệ tinh Các từ còn lại: station: trạm, bến; system: hệ thống; shuttles: hê thống giao thông vận tải tuyến đường ngắn. Question 14. Đáp án B S+ think (+ that) +clause → câu thiếu chủ ngữ và động từ trong mệnh đề sau “think”. → đáp án phù hợp nhất là B. Question 15. Đáp án A Đáp án là A. weigh up the pros and cons: cân nhắc thuận lợi và bất lợi Nghĩa các cụm còn lại: get through to st: đạt được một bậc cao hơn trong cuộc thi đấu get through to sb: nối máy được với ai turn over a new leaf: cải tà quy chính Question 16. Đáp án C Đáp án là C.must have done: dùng để diễn tả hành động sự việc chắc chắn đã xảy ra trong quá khứ, thường là có cơ sở. Dịch: Có thứ gì đó đã xảy ra hoặc họ sẽ đến đây ngay bây giờ. DeThiThu.NetQuestion 17. Đáp án D Đáp án là D. stored: được bảo quản, lưu trữ Dịch: Chúng tôi được bảo là để nó vào nơi mà nó được bảo quản bình thường. Các từ còn lại: belong to: thuộc về; fit: vừa vặn, hợp; Question 18. Đáp án D Đáp án là D. evidence: bằng chứng → danh từ không đếm được→ A và B loại. Trường hợp này cũng không dùng “the”, theo cấu trúc song song khi dùng liên từ “or”, proof không dùng “the” → evidence cũng không dùng”the” Question 19. Đáp án C Đáp án là C. one of his many happy customers: một trong những khách hàng vui vẻ của anh ta. Xét về hợp nghĩa không chọn A và D được . all : tất cả; some: một vài Xét về hình thức, B cũng không chọn được vì không ai dùng “one of his lots of ... Question 20. Đáp án C Cấu trúc thể hiện sự đồng tình “ I hope so.”, cấu trúc thể hiện sự không đồng tình “I hope not.” → Đáp án là C. Question 21. Đáp án C Đáp án là C. Cấu trúc so sánh ngang bằng: S + be + as + adj + aan + N + as + O. Phủ định thêm “not” vào sau “be” Question 22. Đáp án A Đáp án là A. stop over: ngừng lại ( trong một cuộc đi ) Các cụm vong lại: put up:đăt lên; set up:dựng lên; close down: đóng cửa hẳn ( không buôn bán, sản xuất ) Question 23. Đáp án B Đáp án là B. “ I don‟t care.” – Tôi không quan tâm. Question 24. Đáp án B Đáp án là B. Cấu trúc: Turn a deaf ear: từ chối lắng nghe hay đáp lời một tuyên bố hay yêu cầu Question 25. Đáp án C Đáp án là C. Prior to = Before: trước khi >< After: Sau khi During: trong, trong suốt ( quá trình ) … , Despite: mặc dù Question 26. Đáp án B Đáp án là B. arid: khô cằn ( đất ) >< damp: ẩm, ẩm ướt Các từ còn lại: deserted: hoang vắng, hiu quạnh; dry: khô, barren: cằn cỗi ( đất ) Question 27. Đáp án B Đáp án là B. expanded = enlarged: được mở rộng Các từ còn lại: prolonged: được kéo dài ra; minuscule: nhỏ xíu, rất nhỏ; swamped: bị ngập ( nước ) Question 28. Đáp án C Đáp án là C. flourish: mọc sum suê ( cây ) = thrive: lớn nhanh, phát triển mạnh Các từ còn lại: amplify: mở rộng; swell: làm phình to lên; prolong: kéo dài ra Question 29. Đáp án B Đáp án là B. decrease = diminish: làm giảm bớt Các từ còn lại: boom: âm vang; abate: làm dịu đi, làm giảm bớt ( nỗi đau, cơn đau ); swamp: làm nhập nước Question 30. Đáp án B Đáp án là B. none → no one Question 31. Đáp án D Đáp án là D. farmers are → farming is. Question 32. Đáp án A Đáp án là A. Japanese → The Japanese Question 33. Đáp án A Đáp án là A. Because of → Because Question 34. Đáp án B Đáp án là B. so does → so do Question 35. Đáp án C Đáp án là C. which: đại từ quan hệ thay thế cho “ Scandinavia” Question 36. Đáp án B DeThiThu.NetĐáp án là B. best−known hình thức so sánh hơn nhất của well known. Be well known for: nổi tiếng về … Question 37. Đáp án A Đáp án là A. over 1,000 years ago: trên một nghìn năm trước. Ta có, overunder + số đếm: trên dưới …. Question 38. Đáp án A Đáp án là A. natural resources: tài nguyên thiên nhiên Các từ còn lại: features: những đặc điểm; nature: tự nhiên, bản chất ( không có dạng số nhiều ); sources: các nguồn Question 39. Đáp án D Đáp án là D. in the world: trên thế giới Các từ còn lại: earth: trái đất,land: đất liền; space: không gian Question 40. Đáp án B Đáp án là B. own distinctive culture and traditions: nền văn hóa và truyền thống đặc biệt riêng Các từ còn lại: distant: xa trong không gian và thời gian; disliked: không được yêu thích; disinterested: không vụ lợi Question 41. Đáp án D Đáp án là D. a member of the European Union: một thành viên của Liên minh châu Âu Question 42. Đáp án D Dùng phương pháp loại trừ: Every và very không có cấu trúc theo sau là giới từ of. Many + of + Ns, nhưng “independence” là danh từ không đếm được → Đáp án là D. some of + ..Ns N( uncountable ) Question 43. Đáp án B Đáp án là B. pay for: trả ( tiền ) cho. … Question 44. Đáp án C Dựa vào nghĩa chọn đáp án là C. difficult: khó Các từ còn lại : impossible: không thể; simple: đơn giản, easy: dễ Question 45. Đáp án D Đáp án là D. Giải thích tại sao những bức vẽ của Dove không thay đổi được viễn cảnh nền nghệ thuật nước Mỹ Một số lý do đề cập: − Dove‟s work had no similar cultural context in America.. − His work was not once but twice orphaned: by the general indifference of the Amercican public, and by his own reclusive nature. Question 46. Đáp án C Đáp án là C. Ý trong bài so sánh giữa tác phẩm được đề cao của Kandinsky và Dove: Kandinsky‟s abstract work, however, complemented the cultural context in Europe, and was therefore appreciated. Dove‟s work had no similar cultural context in America. Question 47. Đáp án B Đáp án là B. orphaned = ignored: bị bỏ qua, không được để ý đến Các từ còn lại: criticized: bị phê bình; valued: được coi trọng; destroyed: bị phá hủy Question 48. Đáp án B Đáp án là B. Ý trong bài cho thấy Dove là người Mỹ, còn Kandinsky là người châu Âu : In fact, Dove was the first American artist to paint in an entirely abstract manner. He painted a set of six abstract works around 1910, prior to the European artist Wassily Kandinsky‟s famous abstract compositions. Question 49. Đáp án B Đáp án là B. indịfference : thờ ơ, không quan tâm >< interest: quan tâm, Các từ còn lại dislike: không thích; joy: niềm vui; ignorance: sự lờ đi, không để ý đến. Question 50. Đáp án B Đáp án là B. Có thể thấy, đoạn 2 nói về sự khởi đầu không tốt của Dove, nhưng đoạn 2, các tác phẩm của ông nhận được sự quan tâm hơn, dựa vào câu: Doves abstract paintings remain interesting compositions on nature. Question 51. Đáp án C This, however, did not make him famous. −Điều này, tuy nhiên, đã không làm cho ông nổi tiếng. → Đáp án là C. 2 He painted a set of six abstract works around 1910, prior to the European artist Wassily Kandinsky‟s DeThiThu.Netfamous abstract compositions. −Ông đã vẽ một bộ sáu tác phẩm trừu tượng khoảng năm 1910, trước những tác phẩm trừu tượng nổi tiếng của họa sĩ châu Âu Wassily Kandinsky. Question 52. Đáp án C Đáp án là C, reclusive = shy: bẽn lẽn, rụt rè Các từ còn lại: charming:duyên dáng; sociable: thân thiện; generous: hào phóng Question 53. Đáp án A Câu nói của Dove: Tôi muốn làm một cái gì đó là có thật trong chính nó, hoặc là thực mà không giống như cái gì khác, điều đó không làm cho bất cứ ai nhớ hoặc biết về bất kỳ điều khác, và điều đó không phải được giải thích, giống như chữ A chẳng hạn. → Đáp án là A. Dove muốn tạo ra tác phẩm nghệ thuật mà là hoàn toàn độc đáo. Question 54. Đáp án D Đoạn văn đã đề cập đến lý do tại tác phẩm không được đề cao trong những giai đoạn đầu của nghệ thuật vẽ tranh trừu tượng. → Có thể suy ra, đoạn văn tiếp theo sẽ nói về những bức vẽ thành công nhất của Dove → Đáp án là D. A. thảo luận về lý do tại sao tác phẩm của Dove bị lờ đi → trong bài đã đề cập B. Thảo luận về cảnh nghệ thuật châu Âu → cái này không bám sát tới Dove. C. Thảo luận về sự khác nhau giữa các tác phẩm của Dove và Kandinsky → ý này cũng đã được đề cập. Question 55. Đáp án B Đáp án là B. Những lợi ích của TV ngày hôm nay. Có thể thấy, đoạn văn liệt kê một số chương trình và lợi ích của nó. Ví dụ: − .. today‟s complex TV dramas and other pop culture Products gives healthy mental exercise. − ….This is what makes these shows such fun to watch − the human mind enjoys being challenged. Question 56. Đáp án D Đáp án là D. Ý thể hiện: you might be thinking, watching “Survivor or “The Bachelor” cannot possibly raise anyones IQ “Survivor” is now in its tenth season, and “The Bachelor” is in its seventh. But as Johnson tells us lately “even the junk has improved”…. Question 57. Đáp án A Đáp án là A. Nine different story lines (or “threads) arc depicted, eachinvolving events and information revealed in previous episodes. Question 58. Đáp án B Đáp án là B. Đoạn văn nói về “24” để nói về sự phức tạp của TV, thể hiện ở chi tiết: Its form also represents a major change in modem TV: during each episode‟s 44 minutes − a real−time hour, minus 16 minutes for commercials – the show connects the lives of 21 different characters, …. each involving events and information revealed in previous episodes Question 59. Đáp án D Đáp án là D. Tác giả đồng tình với một số quan điểm của Johnson, nhưng không phải tất cả đươc thể hiện ở đoạn 2 và 3. Question 60. Đáp án D Đáp án là D. A được đề cập: .. popular culture is in a state of decline rapidly B được đề cập: these cognitive challenges are changing our mental development for the better. C được đề cập: the participants and the audience know the general objective of the game but each episode brings new challenges that require quick thinking… This is what makes these shows such fun to watch − the human mind enjoys being challenged. Question 61. Đáp án A Đáp án là A. Ý trong bài: … interwoven plot lines involving multiple characters “multi−threading” Question 62. Đáp án B Đáp án là B. Ý thể hiện sự tương phản qua từ “but”: For years many people have assumed that popular culture is in a state of decline rapidly degenerating into “junk culture with no worthwhile purpose. But an interesting new book challenges that assumption…. Question 63. Đáp án C DeThiThu.Net DeThiThu.NetĐáp án là C. Ý trong bài: The new reality shows are like games: they are series of competitive tests, each more challenging than the last, and with rules that must be learned as you play. Question 64. Đáp án D Đáp án là D. detecting: tìm ra, khám phá ra = finding Các từ còn lại: making: làm; admiring: khâm phục; remembering: nhớ Question 65. Students are not allowed permitted to park here. Question 66. Half of the report has been written already. Question 67. If only she had been wearing had worn a cash helmet, she would might could have escaped injury. Question 68. Amy still remembers being bitten by a dog when she was very young. Question 69. His only comment was that he would return in two days time. Question 70. Nobody can deny the benefits of sports and physical exercises. In fact, such sports as: swimming, jogging, jumping, playing tennis, football, basket − ball, volley − ball, skating, skiing etc bring us a well − proportioned body. When we practise a certain sport, our muscles are developed; blood circulates easily in blood vessels therefore well have a good appetite and a sound sleep As for me, my favourite sport is jogging in the morning and playing tennis in the afternoon. By practicing these sports regularly I always feel fit and never get sick. Health is much more precious than money. We cant lead a happy life if we are continually tortured by diseases. Try to keep a clear mind in a healthy body and get accustomed to regular practice of certain sports, well feel life worth living. Truy cập http:dethithu.net mỗi ngày để tải các đề thi thử THPT Quốc Gia ( Đại Học ) các môn TOÁN – ANH – VĂN – LÝ – HÓA – SINH mới nhất,nhanh nhất từ các trường THPT và trung tâm luyện thi đại học trong nước.Chúng tôi luôn cập nhật đề thi thử mỗi ngày vậy nên các bạn yên,luôn có các đề thi thử mới nhất để các bạn tham khảo. 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Đề thi thử đại học môn tiếng Anh khối A1, D có đáp án năm 2014 (P2)

Đề thi thử đại học môn tiếng Anh khối A1, D có đáp án năm 2014 (P2)

Cập nhật đề thi thử đại học môn tiếng Anh khối D, A1 năm 2014 phần 2 trường  Lương Thế Vinh ngày 20/2/2014. Đề thi thử đại học môn tiếng Anh khối D, A1 năm 2014 - đề số 3 Mark the letter A, B, C or D on your answer sheet to indicate the sentence that is correct and closest in meaning to each of the following sentences from 1 to 5.  Question 1: Although it is not a threat to humans, the Bespectacled Bear is killed as it does damage to agriculture. A. People kill the Bespectacled Bear because of its damage to agriculture even though it is not a threat to humans. B. As a threat to human and damage to agriculture, the Bespectacled Bear is killed. C. The Bespectacled Bear is killed although it is neither a threat to humans nor damage to agriculture. D. The Bespectacled Bear is killed as it does damage to agriculture and is a threat to humans. Question 2: Some scientists think that a meteor impact, which occurred around 65 million years ago, may have caused the extinction of the dinasaurs. A. The extinction of the dinosaurs could only have been caused by a meteor impact that occurred some 65 million years ago.                                                                      B. According to some scientists, the extinction of the dinosaurs was caused by a meteor that struck Earth 65 million or so years ago. C. Some scientists reckon that the impact of a meteor that struck Earth some 65 million years ago need not have caused the extinction of the dinosaurs.                        D. In the opinion of some scientists, the extinction of the dinosaurs could have been the result of the impact of a meteor which occurred roughly 65 million years ago. Question 3: There are two interesting things I found in The Last Leaf by O. Henry in addition to the general theme of death and dying. A. In The Last Leaf by O. Henry two interesting things about death and dying are additional themes I found. B. The general theme of death and dying is the most interesting thing I found in The Last Leaf by O. Henry. C. The general theme of death and dying is one interesting thing I found in The Last Leaf by O. Henry. D. The general theme of death and dying is what I found interesting in The Last Leaf by O. Henry besides the other two things. Question 4: Many have said that if he had not needed the money as a writer, he would have had the freedom to explore his potential. A. Many have said that it was the need for money that made him explore his potential. B. It has been said that without his need for money as a writer, he would have explored the freedom of his potential. C. It has been said that because he needed the money as a writer, he didn’t have the freedom to explore his potential. D. Many have said that he needed money as a writer more than his freedom to explore his potential. Question 5: When he asked which one I wanted, I said I didn’t mind. A. He said I could choose between them, but I said it didn’t matter to me. B. It was up to me to choose between them, but I really didn’t want to. C. I would have done the choosing if they had asked me to. D. He wanted me to choose for him and I agreed to do so.  Mark the letter A, B, C or D on your answer sheet to indicate the word that differs from the rest in the position of the main stress in each of the following questions from 6 to 8.  Question 6: A. elaborately       B. flamingo        C. embryo           D. gazelle Question 7: A. entrepreneur   B. extracurricular  C. autobiography    D. disciplinary Question 8: A. e-book       B. quick-witted           C. in-depth         D. white-collar  Read the following passage and mark the letter A, B, C or D on your answer sheet to choose the word or phrase that best fits each of the numbered blanks from 9 to 18. What is meant by the term economic resources? In general, these are all the natural, man-made, and human resources that go into the (9) _________of goods and services. Economic resources can be broken down into (10) _________ general categories: property resource – land and capital, and human resources – labor and entrepreneurial skills. What do economists mean (11) __________land? Much more than the non-economist, land refers to all the natural resources (12) ________ are usable in the production process: arable land, forests, mineral and oil deposits, and (13)__________ on. What about capital? Capital goods are all the man-made aids to producing, storing, transporting, and distributing goods and (14) __________. Capital goods differ from consumer goods in that (15) __________ satisfy wants directly, while the former do so indirectly by facilitating the production of consumer goods. It should be noted that capital as defined here does not (16) ___________ to money. Money, as such, produces nothing. The term labor refers to the physical and mental talents of humans used to produce goods and services (with the exception of a certain set of human talents, entrepreneurial skills, which will be considered separately because of their special significance). Thus the services of a factory worker or an office worker, a ballet (17) ___________ or an astronaut all fall (18) __________ the general heading of labor.  Question 9: A. production           B. plant          C. using             D. doing Question 10: A. many    B. six                 C. two                  D. some Question 11: A. by              B. using               C. calling           D. with Question 12: A. these             B. they                 C. what                D. that Question 13: A. so          B. come                C. such                        D. go Question 14: A. money       B. machines           C. crops            D. services Question 15: A. later           B. lately            C. the latter           D. the latest Question 16: A. come         B. go                C. speak                 D. refer Question 17: A. performance       B. director          C. writer          D. dancer Question 18: A. into        B. from               C. under                      D. to  Mark the letter A, B, C or D on your answer sheet to indicate the word whose underlined part differs from the other three in pronunciation in each of the following questions from 19 to 20.  Question 19: A. punished            B. cooked           C. markedly        D. laughed Question 20: A. recollect         B. preface           C. restore             D. predator Mark the letter A, B, C or D on your answer sheet that best completes each sentence from 21 to 25.  Question 21:  Only for a short period of time __________ run at top speed. A. that a cheetah can       B. can      C. cheetahs             D. do cheetahs Question 22:  Manufacturers can help conserve mineral and timber supplies ___________. A. that recycles materials being left over from production processes B. which recycling materials left over from production processes C. by recycling materials left over from production processes D. recycling materials which left over from production processes Question 23: ___________ that hunted other animals tended to have very narrow, sharp, curved claws. A. For dinosaurs                                                      B. Dinosaurs C. Like dinosaurs                                                    D. Dinosaurs are known Question24: ___________ at the Isthmus of Panama, so animals were able to migrate between North andSouth America. A. With a land bridge                                              B. When a land bridge existed C. A land bridge                                                      D. A land bridge existed Question 25:  For more than a decade, ___________ that certain species are becoming scarce. A. the warnings of bird-watchers                            B. warn the bird-watcher C. a warning for bird-watchers                               D. bird-watchers have warned  Mark the letter A, B, C or D on your answer sheet to indicate the word or phrase closest in meaning to the underlined word(s) in each of the following questions from 26 to 28.  Question 26: Biogas can be utilized for electricity production, cooking, space heating, water heating and process heating. A. generation                   B. increase          C. reformation        D. sparing Question 27:  We spent the entire day looking for a new apartment. A. the long day           B. all day long        C. all long day         D. day after day Question 28:  I used to meet him occasionally onFifth Avenue. A. one time       B. in one occasion       C. once in a while        D. none is correct  Mark the letter A, B, C or D on your answer sheet to indicate the correct answer to each of the following questions.  Question 29: A cooperative program between China and Germany on building Yangzhow, a famous ancient city, into a(n) ________ city has proceeded smoothly since it started in September last year. A. friendly ecology  B. ecology-friendly   C. friendly-ecological   D. ecological-friendly Question 30: She brought three children up __________. A. single-minded     B. single-handedly    C. single-mindedly        D. single-handed Question 31: He left the country  __________ arrest if he returned. A. with fear of       B. with threat of       C. under threat of            D. in fear of Question 32: “What do you do for a living?” – “___________.” A. I get a high salary, you know.                            B. I want to be a doctor, I guess C. I work in a bank                                                  D. It’s hard work, you know. Question 33: “Jane is really conscientious, isn’t she?”            “Absolutely. ___________, she is very efficient” A. All the same                B. So                C. Still             D. What is more Question 34: I know you didn’t see me yesterday because I was inHanoi. You  __________ me. A. may not have seen      B. mustn’t have seen       C. shouldn’t have seen    D. can’t have seen Question 35: With competition from __________ the British coal industry is facing a serious ___________. A. imports/ crisis     B. import/ crisis        C. import/ crises      D. imports/ crises Question 36: Joe, remember that I’m  __________ you to see that there’s no trouble at the party on Sunday. A. believing in     B. relying on           C. depending on              D. waiting for Question 37: “Excuse me. I’m your new neighbor. I just moved in.”  “__________.” A. Oh, I don’t think so    B. Where to, sir?   C. Sorry, I don’t know    D. I’m afraid not Question 38: The city has __________ of young consumers who are sensitive to trends, and can, therefore, help industries predict the potential risks and success of products. A. a high rate                   B. a high tendency          C. a high proportion        D. a great level Question 39: Simple sails were made from canvas __________ over a frame. A. was stretched              B. stretched            C. a stretch        D. it was stretched Question 40: Governments shoud __________ international laws against terrorism. A. bring about                 B. bring up         C. bring back       D. bring in Question 41: She had just enough time to  __________ the report before the meeting. A. turn round             B. dip into          C. go into           D. get through Question 42: Students can  __________ a lot of information just by attending class and taking good notes of the lectures. A. read                 B. transmit           C. provide                       D. absorb Question 43: In 1975, the successful space probe to __________ beginning to send information back to earth. A. Venus the         B. Venus it was               C. Venus was        D. Venus Question44: He was a natural singer with a voice that was as clear as_________. A. a water fall      B. a lake              C. a mirror                       D. a bell Question 45: He may be shy now, but he will soon come out of his  __________ when he meets the right girl. A. shed       B. shell              C. shoe                            D. hole Question 46: The documentary was so  __________ that many viewers cried. A. moved                         B. touching                      C. moody                        D. touchy Question 47: Some  __________ back workers were working hard in the sunshine. A. empty        B. vacant              C. naked                          D. bare Question 48: Space travel seemed __________ but it has come true now. A. unable           B. disagreeable       C. disbelievable               D. unthinkable Question 49: We’d better phone __________ the restaurant to reserve a table. A. ø              B. for                               C. to                                D. at Question 50: “Have you  __________ this contract yet?” - “Not yet. I’ll try to read it this weekend. A. looked out       B. looked over    C. looked up                    D. looked into Question 51: ___________ giraffe is the tallest of all __________animals. A. ø/ the        B. A/ the                C. The/ ø                          D. A/ ø Question 52: -“I’m going out now.”  - “__________ you happen to pass a chemist’s, would you get me some aspirins?” A. Were         B. Should                 C. Had                             D. Did Question 53: By the year 2050, many people currently employed __________ their jobs. A. are losing       B. will have lost         C. will be losing              D. have lost  Mark the letter A, B, C or D on your answer sheet to indicate the word(s) opposite in meaning to the underlined word(s) in each of the following questions from 54 to 55.  Question 54:  During the five-decade history the Asian Games have been advancing in all aspects. A. holding at      B. holding to           C. holding by                  D. holding back Question 55: She decided to remain celibate and devote her life to helping the homeless and orphans. A. married            B. divorced        C. separated                    D. single  Read the following passage and mark the letter A, B, C or D on your answer sheet to indicate the answer to each of the questions from 56 to 65.         Quite different from storm surges are the giant sea waves called tsunamis, which derive their name from the Japanese expression for “high water in a harbor.” These waves are also referred to by the general public as tidal waves, although they have relatively little to do with tides. Scientists often referred to them as seismic sea waves, far more appropriate in that they do result from undersea seismic activity.        Tsunamis are caused when the sea bottom suddenly moves, during an underwater earthquake or volcano for example, and the water above the moving earth is suddenly displaced. This sudden shift of water sets off a series of waves. These waves can travel great distances at speeds close to 700 kilometers per hour. In the open ocean, tsunamis have little noticeable amplitude, often no more than one or two meters. It is when they hit the shallow waters near the coast that they increase in height, possibly up to 40 meters.        Tsunamis often occur in the Pacific because the Pacific is an area of heavy seismic activity. Two areas of the Pacific well accustomed to the threat of tsunamis are Japanand Hawaii. Because the seismic activity that causes tsunamis in Japanoften occurs on the ocean bottom quite close to the islands, the tsunamis that hit Japanoften come with little warning and can, therefore, prove disastrous. Most of the tsunamis that hit the Hawaiian Islands, however, originate thousands of miles away near the coast of Alaska, so these tsunamis have a much greater distance to travel and the inhabitants of Hawaiigenerally have time for warning of their imminent arrival.        Tsunamis are certainly not limited to Japanand Hawaii. In 1755, Europe experienced a calamitous tsunami, when movement along the fault lines near the Azores caused a massive tsunami to sweep onto the Portuguese coast and flood the heavily populated area around Lisbon. The greatest tsunami on record occurred on the other side of the world in 1883 when the Krakatoa volcano underwent a massive explosion, sending waves more than 30 meters high onto nearby Indonesian islands; the tsunami from this volcano actually traveled around the world and was witnessed as far away as the English Channel.  Question 56:  The paragraph preceding this passage most probably discusses A. underwater earthquakes                                      B. storm surges C. tides                                                                    D. tidal waves Question 57: According to the passage, all of the following are true about tidal waves EXCEPT that A. they are caused by sudden changes in high and low tides B. this terminology is not used by the scientific community C. they are the same as tsunamis D. they refer to the same phenomenon as seismic sea waves Question 58: The word “displaced” in line 7 is closest in meaning to A. moved              B. filtered             C. located          D. not pleased Question 59: It can be inferred from the passage that tsunamis A. cause severe damage in the middle of the ocean B. generally reach heights greater than 40 meters C. are far more dangerous on the coast than in the open ocean D. are often identified by ships on the ocean Question 60: In line 10, water that is “shallow” is NOT A. deep                     B. clear              C. coastal                         D. tidal Question 61: A main difference between tsunamis in Japan and in Hawaii is that tsunamis in Japan are more likely to A. come from greater distances                               B. originate inAlaska C. arrive without warning                                       D. be less of a problem Question 62: The possessive “their” in line 18 refers to A. the Hawaiian Islands                                          B. thousands of miles C. these tsunamis                                                     D. the inhabitants ofHawaii Question 63: A “calamitous” tsunami, in line 20, is one that is A. at fault          B. disastrous       C. extremely calm           D. expected Question 64: From the expression “on record” in line 22, it can be inferred that the tsunami that accompanied the Krakatoa volcano A. was not as strong as the tsunami in Lisbon        B. might not be the greatest tsunami ever C. was filmed as it was happening        D. occurred before efficient records were kept Question 65: The passage suggests that the tsunami resulting from the Krakatoa volcano A. was far more destructive close to the source than far away B. resulted in little damage C. was unobserved outside of the Indonesian islands D. caused volcanic explosions in theEnglish Channel  Read the following passage and mark the letter A, B, C or D on your answer sheet to indicate the answer to each of the questions from 66 to 75. Esperanto is what is called a planned, or artificial, language. It was created more than a century ago by Polish eye doctor Ludwik Lazar Zamenhof. Zamenhof believed that a common language would help to alleviate some of the misunderstandings among cultures. In Zamenhof’s first attempt at a universal language, he tried to create a language that was as uncomplicated as possible. This first language included words such as ab, ac, ba, eb, be, and ce. This did not result in a workable language in that these monosyllabic words, though short, were not easy to understand or to retain. Next, Zamenhof tried a different way of constructing a simplified language. He made the words in his language sound like words that people already knew, but he simplified the grammar tremendously. One example of how he simplified the language can be seen in the suffixes: all nouns in this language end in o, as in the noun amiko, which means “friend”, and all adjectives end in -a, as in the adjective bela, which means “pretty”. Another example of the simplified language can be seen in the prefix mal-, which makes a word opposite in meaning; the word malamiko therefore means “enemy”, and the word malbela therefore means “ugly” in Zamenhof’s language. In 1887, Zamenhof wrote a description of this language and published it. He used a pen name, Dr. Esperanto, when signing the book. He selected the name Esperanto because this word means “a person who hopes” in his language. Esperanto clubs began popping up throughout Europe, and by 1950, Esperanto had spread from Europe toAmerica andAsia. In 1905, the First World Congress of Esperanto took place inFrance, with approximately700 attendees from 20 different countries. Congresses were held annually for nine years, and 4,000 attendees were registered for the Tenth World Esperanto Congress scheduled for 1914, when World War I erupted and forced its cancellation. Esperanto has had its ups and downs in the period since World War I. Today, years after it was introduced, it is estimated that perhaps a quarter of a million people are fluent in it. This may seem like a large number, but it is really quite small when compared with the billion English speakers and billion Mandarin Chinese speakers in today’s world. Current advocates would like to see its use grow considerably and are taking steps to try to make this happen.  Question 66: The topic of this passage is A. one man’s efforts to create a universal language B. how language can be improve C. using language to communicate internationally D. a language developed in the last few years Question 67: According to the passage, Zamenhof wanted to create a universal language A. to build a name for himself                                 B. to provide a more complex language C. to resolve cultural differences                            D. to create one world culture Question 68: It can be inferred from the passage that the Esperanto word malespera means A. hopeless           B. hope              C. hopelessness               D. hopeful Question 69: The expression “popping up” in line 17 could best be replaced by A. shouting                      B. opening            C. hiding          D. leaping Question 70: It can be inferred from the passage that the Third World Congress of Esperanto took place A. in 1905                B. in 1909          C. in 1907                        D. in 1913 Question 71: According to the passage, what happened to the Tenth World Esperanto Congress? A. It had attendees from20 countries                      B. It never took place C. It had 4,000 attendees                                        D. It was scheduled for 1915 Question72: The expression “ups and downs” in line 23 is closest in meaning to A. tops and bottoms                                                B. floors and ceilings C. takeoffs and landings                                         D. highs and lows Question 73: Which paragraph describes the predecessor to Esperanto? A. The first paragraph                                              B. The second paragraph C. The third paragraph                                            D. The fourth paragraph Question 74: The passage would most likely be assigned reading in a course on A. European history        B. English grammar         C. world government       D. applied linguistics Question 75: The paragraph following the passage most likely discusses A. how current supporters of Esperanto are encouraging its growth B. another of Zamenhof’s accomplishments C. the disadvantages of using an artificial language D. attempts to reconvene the World Congress of Esperanto in the 1920s  Mark the letter A, B, C or D on your answer sheet to show the underlined part that needs correction in each of the following questions from 76 to 80.  Question 76: Because of its ability to survive close to human habitations, the Virginia deer has actually increased their range and numbers. A. its             B. their                   C. has                    D. close to Question 77: A 1971 U.S government policy not only put warnings on cigarette packs but also ban television advertising of cigarettes. A. warnings        B. advertising      C. government                 D. ban Question 78: In the 1920s, Tulsa had a higher number of millionaire than any other U.S. city. A. higher        B. millionaire             C. city                              D. other Question 79:  Snapping turtles are easily recognized because of the large head, the long tail and the shell that seems unsufficiently to protect the body. A. unsufficiently             B. easily              C. because of     D. to protect Question 80:  Some of the agricultural practices used today is responsible for fostering desertification. A. used              B. fostering              C. practices                      D. is  Đáp án đề thi thử đại học môn tiếng Anh khối D, A1 năm 2014 - đề số 3 1 A 21 D 41 B 61 C 2 D 22 C 42 D 62 C 3 D 23 B 43 C 63 B 4 C 24 D 44 D 64 B 5 A 25 D 45 B 65 A 6 C 26 A 46 B 66 A 7 D 27 B 47 C 67 C 8 A 28 C 48 D 68 A 9 A 29 B 49 A 69 B 10 C 30 B 50 B 70 C 11 A 31 C 51 C 71 B 12 D 32 C 52 B 72 D 13 A 33 D 53 B 73 B 14 D 34 D 54 D 74 D 15 C 35 A 55 A 75 A 16 D 36 B 56 B 76 B 17 D 37 C 57 A 77 D 18 C 38 C 58 A 78 B 19 C 39 B 59 C 79 A 20 C 40 D 60 A 80 D  Tuyensinh247 sẽ tiếp tục cập nhật đề thi thử đại học môn tiếng Anh phần 3 các em thường xuyên theo dõi.  Chúc các em ôn thi đại học môn tiếng Anh tốt nhé! Xem thêm: 
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HIS chapter 2 ( Tin y học trong bệnh viện)

HIS chapter 2 ( Tin y học trong bệnh viện)

Reinhold Haux Alfred Winter Elske Ammenwerth Birgit Brigl Strategic Information Management in Hospitals An Introduction to Hospital Information Systems 2 2 Basic Concepts 2.1 Introduction Each domain usually has its own terminology which often differentiates from the ordinary understanding of concepts and terms. This chapter presents terminology for hospital information systems and its information management, as used in this book. It is, therefore, essential to read this chapter carefully. All relevant concepts can also be found in the thesaurus at the end of the book. After this chapter, you should be able to answer the following questions: • Which basic concepts are needed in order to work on hospital information systems? • What terms do we use? 2.2 Data, information and knowledge Data constitute a reinterpretable representation of information, or knowledge, in a formalized manner suitable for communication, interpretation, or processing by humans or machines. Formalization may take the form of discrete characters or of continuous signals (e.g., sound signals). In order to be ‘reinterpretable’, there has to be agreement on how data represent information. For example, Peter Smith or 001001110 are data. A set of data which is collected for the purpose of transmission and which is considered to be an entity is called a message. There is no unique definition of information. Depending on the point of view, the definition may deal with the syntactic aspect (the structure), the semantic aspect (the meaning) or the pragmatic aspect (the intention or goal of information). We will simply define information as specific knowledge about objects such as facts, events, things, persons, processes, or ideas. For example, when a physician knows the diagnosis (facts) of a patient (person), then he or she has information. Information as specific knowledge contrasts with general knowledgeabout concepts (for example diseases, therapeutic methods). The knowledge of a nurse, for example, comprises how to typically deal with patients suffering from decubitus. For the sake of simplicity, we will often use the term information processing, when we mean processing of data, information and knowledge. 2. Basic Concepts 19 2.3 Information systems and their components Systems and subsystems Before talking about information systems, let us first define the concept system. As defined here, a systemis a set of persons, things andor events which form an entity, together with their relationships. We distinguish between natural systems and manmade systems. For example, the nervous system is a typical natural system, consisting of neurons and their relationships. A manmade system is, for example, a hospital, consisting of staff, patients and relatives, and their interactions. If a (manmade) system consists of both human and technical objects, it can be called a sociotechnical system. A system can, in principle, be divided into subsystemswhich comprise a subset of all objects and the relationships between them. For example, a possible subsystem of the nervous system is the sympathetic nervous system. A subsystem of a hospital is, for example, a ward with its staff and patients. Subsystems themselves are again systems. Models of systems When dealing with systems, we usually work with modelsof systems. A model is a description of what the modeler thinks to be relevant of a system. In the sciences, models commonly represent simplified depictions of reality or excerpts of it (see Figure 17). Models are adapted to answer certain questions or to solve certain tasks. Models should be appropriate for the respective questions or tasks. This means that a model is only ‘good’ when it is able to answer such a question or solve such a task. For example, a model which only comprises the patients of a ward cannot be used for nurse staffing and shift planning. Information Systems An information systemis that part of an enterprise which processes and stores data, information, and knowledge. It can be defined as the sociotechnical subsystem of an enterprise which comprises all information processing as well as the associated human or technical actors in their respective information processing role. ‘Socio’ refers to the people involved in information processing (e.g., health care professionals, administrative staff, computer scientists), whereas ‘technical’ refers to information processing tools (e.g., computers, telephones, patient Figure 17: A model of a computer is not the real computer. 20 Strategic Information Management in Hospitals records). The people and machines in an enterprise are only considered in their role as information processors, carrying out specific actions following established rules. An information system which comprises computerbased information processing and communication tools is called a computersupported information system. The subsystem of the information system where computerbased tools are used is called the computersupported part, the rest is called the conventional part of the information system. Components of information systems When describing an information system, it can help to look at the following typical components of information systems: Enterprise functions, business processes, application components and physical data processing components. An enterprise functiondescribes what acting human or machines have to do in a certain enterprise to contribute to its mission and goals. For example, patient admission, clinical data management or financial controlling describe typical enterprise functions. Enterprise functions are ongoing and continuous. They describe what is to be done, not how it is done. Enterprise functions can be put together in a hierarchy of functions, where a function can be described in more detail by refined functions. Enterprise functions are usually denoted by nouns or gerunds (i.e. words ending with ing). An activity is an instantiation of an enterprise function working on an individual object. For example, Dr. Doe admits patient Jane Smith is an activity of the enterprise function patient admission. Just as enterprise functions, they can be put together in a hierarchy of activities. In contrast to enterprise functions, activities have a definite beginning and end. To describe the chronological and logical sequence of a set of activities, business processesare useful. They describe the sequence of activities together with the conditions under which they are invoked, in order to achieve a certain enterprise goal. Business processes are usually denoted by verbs (for example, dismiss a patient, document a diagnosis or write a discharge letter). As they are composed of individual activities, they also have a definite beginning and end. We will only refer to enterprise functions and business processes in respect to information processing. Whereas enterprise functions and business processes describe what is done, we now want to have a look at tools for processing data, in particular at socalled application components and at physical data processing components. Both are usually referred to as information processing tools. They describe the means used for information processing. Application components support enterprise functions. We distinguish computerbased from conventional application components. Computerbased application components are installations of software products on computers. A software product is an acquired or selfdeveloped 2. Basic Concepts 21 piece of software which is complete in itself and which can be installed on a computer system. For example, the application component patient management system stands for the installation of a software product to support the enterprise functions of patient admission, management, and discharge. Conventional application components are realized by conventional means such as organizational plans which describe how to use conventional data processing components. For example, the application component nursing documentation organization contains rules how and in which context to use the given forms for nursing documentation. The communication respectively the cooperation among application components must be organized in such a way that the business processes can be executed. Physical data processing components, finally, describe the information processing tools which are used to realize the computerbased and the conventional application components (see Figure 18). Physical data processing components can be human actors (such as the person delivering mail), conventional physical tools (such as printed forms, telephones, books, patient record), or computer systems (such as terminals, servers, personal computers). Computer systems can be physically connected via data wires, leading to physical networks. Architecture and infrastructure of information systems The architecture of an information system describes its fundamental organization, represented by its components, their relationships to each other and to the environment, and by the principles guiding its design and evolution. 13 The architecture of an information systems can be described by the enterprise functions, the business processes, and the information processing tools, together with their relationships. There may be several architectural views of an information system, e.g. a functional view looking primarily at the enterprise functions, a process view looking primarily at the business processes, etc. Architectures which are equivalent with regard to certain characteristics, can be summarized to a certain architectural style. 13 Institute of Electrical and Electronics Engineers (IEEE). Std 14712000: Recommended Practice for Architectural Description of SoftwareIntensive Systems. September 2000. http:standards.ieee.org. Figure 18: Typical physical data processing components on a ward. 22 Strategic Information Management in Hospitals When the focus is put onto the types, number and availability of information processing tools used in a given hospital, this is also called infrastructureof its hospital information system. 2.4 Hospital information systems With the definition of information systems in mind, a hospital information system can easily be defined. A hospital information systemis the sociotechnical subsystem of a hospital, which comprises all information processing as well as the associated human or technical actors in their respective information processing roles. Typical components of hospital information systems are its enterprise functions, business processes, application components and physical data processing components. For the sake of simplicity, we will denote ‘enterprise functions of a hospital’ as ‘hospital functions’. As a consequence of this definition, a hospital has a hospital information system from the beginning of its existence. Therefore the question is not whether a hospital should be equipped with a hospital information system, but rather, whether its performance should be enhanced, for example, by using state of the art information processing tools, or by systematically managing it. All groups of people and all areas of a hospital must be considered when looking at information processing. A sensible integration of each hospital function and of different information processing tools in a hospital information system is important. Hospital staff can be seen in two roles: In one, they are part of the hospital information system. For example, when working in the department for patient records, or as operator in an ICT department, they directly contribute to information processing. In the other role, they use information processing tools (e.g. a nurse may use a telephone or a computer), in other words, they are users of the hospital information system. Each employee may continuously switch between these two roles. The goalof a hospital information system is to sufficiently enable the adequate execution of hospital functions for patient care, including patient administration, taking into account economic hospital management as well as legal and other requirements. Legal requirements concern e.g. data protection or reimbursement aspects, other requirement can be, e.g., the decision of a hospital executive board on how to store patient records. In order to support patient care and the associated administration, the tasksof hospital information systems are: • to make information, primarily about patients, available: current information should be provided on time, at the right location, to authorized staff, in an appropriate and usable form. For this purpose, data must be correctly collected, stored, processed, and systematically documented in order to 2. Basic Concepts 23 ensure that correct, pertinent and uptodate patient information can be supplied, for instance, to the physician or a nurse (see Figure 19); • to make knowledge, for example about diseases and side effects and interactions of medications, available to support diagnostics and therapy; • to make information about the quality of patient care and the performance and cost situation within the hospital available. In addition to patient care, university medical centers undertake research and education to gain medical knowledge and to teach students. When hospital information systems make available • the right information and knowledge • at the right time • at the right place • to the right people • in the right form • so that these people can make the right decisions, this is also described as the information and knowledge logistics of a hospital. Hospital information systems have to consider various areasof a hospital, such as • wards, • outpatient units, • service units: diagnostic (e.g. clinical laboratory, radiological department), therapeutic (e.g. operation room) and others (e.g. pharmacy, patient records archive, library, blood bank), • hospital administration areas (e.g. general administration, patient administration and accounting, technology, economy and supply, human resources), • offices and writing services for (clinical) report writing. In addition, there are the management areas, such as: hospital management, management of clinical departments and institutes, administration management and nursing management. These areas are related to patient care. They could be broken down further. For university medical centers, additional areas, needed for research and education, Figure 20: Different people working in a hospital (here: an emergency department). Figure 19: A health care professional accessing patient information. 24 Strategic Information Management in Hospitals must be added to the above list. Obviously, the most important peoplein a hospital are the patients and, in certain respect, their visitors. The groups of people working in a hospital (see Figure 20) are • physicians, • nurses, • administrative staff, • technical staff, • health informaticians, health information management staff, etc. Obviously, within each group of people, different needs and demands on the hospital information systems may exist, depending on the tasks and responsibilities. Ward physicians, for example, will require different information than physicians working in service units or than senior physicians. 2.5 Health information systems In many countries, the driving force for health care and for ICT in health care during the last years has been the trend towards a better coordination of care, combined with rising cost pressure. One consequence is the shift towards better integrated and shared care. This means that the focus changes from isolated procedures in one health care institution (e.g. one hospital or one general practice) to the patientoriented care process, encompassing diagnosis and therapy, spreading over institutional boundaries (see Figure 21). In the US, e.g. health care organizations are merging into large integrated health care delivery systems. These are health care institutions that join together to consolidate their roles, resources and operations in order to deliver a coordinated continuum of services and to enhance effectiveness and efficiency of patient care. The situation in Europe is also changing from hospitals as centers of care delivery to decentralized networks of health care delivery institutions which are called regional networks or health care networks. Enterprise boundaries are blurring. Hospital information systems will increasingly be linked with information systems of other health care organizations. The future architecture of hospital information systems must take these developments into account. They must be open to provide access or to exchange patientrelated and general data (e.g., about the services offered in the hospital) across its institutional boundaries. Figure 21: A general practitioner, contacting a hospital. 2. Basic Concepts 25 A lot of technical and legal issues have to be solved before the vision of transinstitutional computersupported health information systems will adequately support transinstitutional patient care. For example, general willingness to cooperate with other health care providers must exist; optimal care processes must be defined, and recent business processes be redesigned; accounting and financing issues must be regulated; questions of data security and data confidentiality must be solved, together with questions on data ownership (patient or institution) and on responsibilities for distributed patient care; issues on longterm patient records (centralized or decentralized) must be discussed; and technical means for integrated, transinstitutional information processing must be offered (‘telemedicine’, ehealth), including general communication standards. When dealing with hospital information systems, we will keep these aspects of health information systems in mind. 2.6 Information management in hospitals In general, management comprises all leadership activities that determine the enterprises’ goals, structures, and behaviors. Accordingly, information management in hospitals are those management activities in a hospital which deal with the management of information processing in a hospital and therefore of its hospital information system. The goal of information management is systematic information processing which contributes to the hospitals strategic goals (such as efficient patient care and high satisfaction of patients and staff). Information management therefore directly contributes to the hospital’s success and capability to compete. Information management encompasses the management of all components of a hospital information system: the management of information, of application components, and of physical data processing components. The general tasks of information management are planning, directing, and monitoring. In other words, this means • planning the hospital information system respectively its architecture; • directing its establishment and its operation; • monitoring its development and operation with respect to the planned objectives. Information management can be differentiated into strategic, tactical, and operational management. Strategic information management deals with information processing as a whole, and lays down strategies and principles for the evolution of the whole information system. Tactical information management deals with the execution of certain projects concerning just part of the information system, e.g. the introduction of an application component for a certain hospital function such as patient administration or documentation of operations. Operational information management, finally, must secure the 26 Strategic Information Management in Hospitals smooth operation of the information system, e.g. planning of necessary personal resources, failure management, or network monitoring. 2.7 Examples Example 2.7.1 Architecture of a hospital information system In the following, an extract of the description of the architecture of the hospital information system of the Plötzberg Medical Center and Medical School (PMC) is presented. As mentioned, PMC is a fictitious institution, which will be used in examples and exercises in this book. The hospital information system of Plötzberg Medical Center and Medical School (PMC) supports the hospital functions of patient treatment with patient admission and discharge, decision support, order entry, clinical documentation and service documentation; handling of patient records; work organization and resource planning; and hospital management. Those hospital functions are supported by some bigger and over a hundred smaller application components (partly computerbased, partly conventional). The biggest application component is the patient management system (PMS), the computerbased application component which supports patient admission and discharge, management of patient treatment, part of administrative and clinical data management, and handling of patient records. In addition, several computerbased departmental application components are used for work organization and resource planning (e.g. in the radiological department, in the laboratory department and in outpatient units). Nearly all computerbased application components are interconnected, using a communication server. Some computerbased application components are isolated systems without interfaces ... Conventional application components are used for special documentation purposes (e.g. documentation in operation rooms), and for order entry and communication of findings. … The application components are realized by physical data processing components. As computerbased physical data processing component, approx. 40 application and database servers are operated, and over 4,000 personal computers are used. Over 1,000 printers of different types are installed. Most computerbased physical data processing components are interconnected to a highspeed communication network. … As conventional physical data processing components, over 2,000 telephones and 800 pagers are used. Over 2,000 different paperbased forms are used to support different tasks. More than 400,000 patients records are created and used each year, a dozen archives are responsible for patient record archiving. A conventional mailing system allows for conventional communication between departments. …” 2. Basic Concepts 27 Example 2.7.2 Comments on the future of health information systems For the physicians of the 1990s and beyond, computer workstations will be their windows on the world. Much of the necessary technology already exists. Desktop or bedside, in the office or at the hospital, computers can respond to a simple click of a mouse pointing device. … In the future, the physician will be able to access the patient record largely by using the mouse and doing very little typing. Moreover, the record will include graphics and images as well as extensive text. Outpatient records will be integrated with inpatient data by using the capabilities of communications networks that link hospitals with the clinics and private offices of their medical staff members. … 14 “Through the further development of information systems at the university hospitals, the following goals are of special importance: • Patient based (facilitywide) recording of and access to clinical data for teambased care. • Workflow integrated decision support made available for all care takers through uptodate, valid medical knowledge. • Comprehensive use of patient data for clinical and epidemiological research, as well as for health reports. ... The following tasks shall have priority and will be worked on in the next years: • The introduction of a patient based, structured, electronic health record. • The stepwise introduction of information system architectures which support cooperative, patient centered and facilitywide care. Workflow support in the area of patient care. • The establishment of a suitable network and computer infrastructure in order to be able to, via the Internet, inform about the care offered at a particular hospital. • The introduction of efficient, usable mobile information and communication tools for patient care. ...” 15 From the experience gained so far ..., a number of direct benefits from health telematics can be identified: ... 14 Ball M, Douglas J, ODesky R, Albrigh J. Health care Information Management Systems A Practical Guide. New York: Springer; 1991. p. 3. 15 Deutsche Forschungsgemeinschaft (DFG): Informationsverarbeitung und Rechner an Hochschulen Netze, Rechner und Organisation. Empfehlungen der Kommission für Rechenanlagen für 20012005 (information processing and computer systems for universities; in German), Kommission für Rechenanlagen der Deutschen Forschungsgemeinschaft. Bonn: DFG; 2001. http:www.dfg.de. 28 Strategic Information Management in Hospitals • More people can be diagnosed and treated at their local clinics or hospitals, though without the facilities of urban referral hospitals. For the first time, it is technically feasible to contemplate the provision of universal health care. ... • Health telematics allows the global sharing of skills and knowledge. Access to international centers of excellence for various specialties becomes possible from many locations. Medical expertise can be available to anyone on request. ... • Cost savings can be achieve by reducing the transport of patients and travel of health care professionals, as well as by allowing home care of patients who would otherwise require hospitalization. ... 16 The future tasks of health care include: greater cooperation, more quality and economics and greater adjustment to the needs of patients. The information age offers great possibilities to solve these tasks, maybe even possibilities that we can’t begin to imagine today. The neuralgic point though in the discussion of telematics in health care is the uniting of data. Especially with regard to personal patient data, we are forthright dealing with the most personal of all data, and special caution is to be exercised when dealing with these data. Afterall, questions of power are raised through the uniting of data: greater transparency also means greater control. 17 2.8 Exercises Exercise 2.8.1 HIS as a system As introduced, a system can be defined as a set of people, things andor events, which form an entity, together with their relationships. Which people, things or events can you find when looking at a hospital information system? In what relationship do they stand to one another? To solve this exercise, take into account the components of hospital information systems as defined in section 2.8. Exercise 2.8.2 Goals of models Find two models which represent a city. What are the goals of these models? What are their components? 16 World Health Organization (WHO). A Health Telematics Policy, Report of the WHO Group Consultation on Health Telematics 1116 December 1997, Geneva. World Health Organization: Geneva; 1998. 17 Speech of German Minister for Health, Andrea Fischer, at the occasion of the first meeting of the symposium ‘telematics in health care’, August 19th 1999, Bonn. 2. Basic Concepts 29 Exercise 2.8.3 Information processing tools in a hospital Look at the following Figures 22 25, taken from a University Medical Center. Which information and communication tools are used? Which hospital functions may be supported by those tools? Exercise 2.8.4 Information processing of different health care professional groups Please have a look at the different groups in a hospital (e.g. : physician, nurse, administrative staff, hospital manager, patient, visitor), and describe some of their typical information processing needs. Exercise 2.8.5 Information and knowledge logistics Select one typical business process in a hospital (such as admitting a patient, requesting an examination, planning of therapeutical procedures, documenting diagnoses etc.) and find three examples how information and knowledge Figure 25: In a laboratoryunit. Figure 22: In the office of a senior physician. Figure 23: Admission at a general practitioner. Figure 24: In an intensive care unit. 30 Strategic Information Management in Hospitals logistics can fail. Which consequences may arise for the quality and for the costs of patient care from this failure? Exercise 2.8.6 Buying a HIS Is it possible to buy a hospital information system? Please explain your answer. What do ‘vendors of hospital information systems’ really sell? Exercise 2.8.7 Health information systems Please have a look at the statement on the comments for the future of health information systems (example 2.2). Which chances are discussed, and which problems? 2.9 Summary When working on hospital information systems, we must distinguish between data, information and knowledge: • Data can be defined as a representation of information, or knowledge, suitable for communicating, interpreting or processing. • Information can be defined in connection with objects which have a particular meaning in a specific context (specific knowledge). • Knowledge can be defined in connection with a certain discipline using specific terminology (general knowledge). Systems can be defined as a set of people, things andor events which can be regarded as an entity. Systems can be divided into subsystems and represented using models. Models commonly represent simplified depictions of reality or excerpts of it. Remember that models • usually form a simplified representation of reality, • should be adapted to a specific question or task, and • should be appropriate to provide answers for these question or tasks. A hospital information system can be defined as the sociotechnical subsystem of a hospital which comprises all information processing functions and the human or technical actors in their information processing role. Thus, when looking at a hospital information system, try to identify the following components or objects: • The enterprise, where it is located. • The hospital functions supported. • The business processes which take place. • The information processing tools used. • The human actors involved (both as part of the information system and as users). The goal of a HIS is to 2. Basic Concepts 31 • adequately enable the execution of hospital functions for patient care, • taking financial, legal and other requirements into account. Information and knowledge logistics means to make available • the right information (about patients, ...) and the right knowledge (about diseases, ...) • at the right time • in the right place • for the right people • in the right form • so that these people can make the right decisions. When working on a hospital information system, you must consider • all areas of a hospital, such as wards, outpatient units, service units, administration departments, writing services, management units, .... • all groups of people in a hospital, such as patients, visitors, physicians, nurses, administrative staff, technical staff, health informaticians, .. Information management in hospitals are those management activities in a hospital which deal with the management of information processing and therefore the management of the hospital information system. The architecture of an information system describes its fundamental organization, represented by its components, their relationships to each other and to the environment, and by the principles guiding its design and evolution.
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GAMES FOR LANGUAGE LEARNING 3RD EDITION

GAMES FOR LANGUAGE LEARNING 3RD EDITION

in recent years, and we have tried to reflect this in the choice andpresentation of games. We have included a new section, Solo games; andwe have included games covering a wide spectrum of individualpreferences in ways of learning (visual, auditory, kinaesthetic, etc.).• The book has always been a basic handbook of games, but in this newedition we have tried to strengthen that claim. In particular we have triedto support the new teacher or teacher in training by offering a wide rangeof games which are easily adaptable to different classes and to differentlearner needs.Our aim: If you can only take one book with you … take this one!xiiAcknowledgementsWe would like to acknowledge a debt to Donn Byrne, Paul Davis, JuneDerrick, Alan Duff, Josie Levine, Alan Maley, John Morgan, MarioRinvolucri and Jim Wingate.We would also like to thank the many other colleagues who havecontributed such a richness of games and activities to the world of languageteaching over the last twenty-five years, both in the classroom and throughbooks, articles and talks at conferences. We have benefited from theirinsights and practicalities.In working on the third edition of this book, we have especially benefitedfrom the advice of Eva Benko, Klara Czirle, Julia Dudas and David A. Hill;and from the many helpful suggestions, based on a detailed reading of ourdraft manuscript, made by Carrie Loffree and Tom McCarthy.Our editor at Cambridge University Press, Alyson Maskell, has been perfect.She has blended compassion for us as writers, concern for the practical needsof teachers, and professionalism in steering the successive drafts of the book
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